Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

• A. Nasal flaring
• B. WBC count of 11,300
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Abdominal distension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.

2. Which question provides information regarding a child's community mobility?

• A. What is the level of supervision provided?
• B. Can the child leave the house and play with friends?
• C. Is the child being bullied?
• D. Is there equipment available so the child can play with peers?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B directly assesses the child's community mobility by inquiring about their ability to leave the house and engage in play activities with friends. Community mobility involves the child's independence in social and recreational activities outside the home, making this question crucial for understanding their daily functioning and autonomy.

3. When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer antibiotics IM once per day.
• B. Initiate droplet precautions.
• C. Place the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room.
• D. Suction the nasopharynx as needed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), maintaining a patent airway is crucial. Suctioning the nasopharynx as needed helps clear secretions, prevent airway obstruction, and promote effective breathing. This intervention can aid in improving the infant's respiratory status and overall comfort. Administering antibiotics IM once per day (Choice A) is not indicated for RSV as it is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Initiating droplet precautions (Choice B) is important to prevent the spread of respiratory infections like RSV, but directly caring for the infant involves more specific interventions. Placing the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room (Choice C) is generally reserved for airborne infections, not RSV which spreads through respiratory droplets.

4. The patient is receiving a heparin infusion for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding is most likely related to an adverse effect of heparin?

• A. HR of 60 bpm
• B. BP of 160/88
• C. Discolored urine
• D. Inspiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary and most serious adverse effect of heparin is bleeding. However, discolored urine can indicate bleeding into the urinary tract, which is a potential adverse effect of heparin therapy. While changes in heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) can occur due to various reasons, discolored urine specifically points towards a potential adverse effect related to heparin therapy.

5. Which menu choices for a child diagnosed with renal failure and experiencing hyperkalemia indicate the need for further instruction by the nurse?

• A. Carrots and green, leafy vegetables
• B. Spaghetti and meat sauce with breadsticks
• C. Hamburger on a bun and cherry gelatin
• D. Chips, cold cuts, and canned foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carrots and green, leafy vegetables are high in potassium, which should be avoided in hyperkalemia. Therefore, this choice requires further instruction by the nurse to prevent exacerbating the child's condition.

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