Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating an infant with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should be the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?

• A. Nasal flaring
• B. WBC count of 11,300
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Abdominal distension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing an infant with pneumonia, the priority finding to report to the provider is nasal flaring. Nasal flaring indicates acute respiratory distress, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing respiratory distress take precedence over other symptoms or laboratory results in this situation.

2. During an assessment, an infant is suspected to have intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Currant jelly stools
• B. Projectile vomiting
• C. Scaphoid abdomen
• D. Frequent stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, causing obstruction. The classic presentation includes currant jelly stools, which are a mixture of blood and mucus due to the sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. This finding is a result of the compromised blood supply to the affected area and is a key characteristic associated with intussusception.

3. In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?

• A. The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion
• B. The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate
• C. The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse
• D. The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.

4. Why is it important to assess for in a child receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome?

• A. Infection
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Easy bruising
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child is receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome, it is crucial to assess for infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making the child more vulnerable to infections. Since steroids can mask typical signs of infection, it is essential to look for subtle symptoms to ensure prompt treatment and prevent complications. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the impact of prednisone therapy in nephrotic syndrome.

5. The patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) makes a statement indicating effective teaching. Which statement shows understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use salt substitutes to lower my sodium intake
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will call my doctor if I begin having menstrual irregularities
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime each evening

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause endocrine effects like menstrual irregularities. Therefore, the patient recognizing the need to report such changes indicates effective teaching. Choices A and B are incorrect as salt substitutes and high-potassium foods should be avoided with spironolactone. Choice D is also incorrect because diuretics, including spironolactone, are ideally taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to nocturia.

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