a nurse in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury which of t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, the priority action for the nurse is to administer 100% humidified oxygen. This is crucial to maintain the airway and address respiratory distress, which takes precedence over obtaining an ECG, collecting blood for ABG analysis, or inserting an IV catheter. Providing oxygen therapy is essential in ensuring the client's oxygenation and respiratory function are optimized in this emergency situation.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the abdomen. Enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously into the abdomen for optimal absorption. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific interaction between enoxaparin and spinach. Choice B is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended and can increase bruising. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin injections should not be administered into the deltoid muscle.

3. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to eat a light snack before bedtime. Consuming a light snack can help promote sleep by preventing discomfort from hunger. Choice A is incorrect because staying in bed for too long when unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice B is incorrect as taking a nap during the day can interfere with nighttime sleep. Choice C is incorrect as exercising before bed can increase alertness and make falling asleep more difficult.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Checking the client's respiratory rate is the priority before administering morphine because morphine can depress respiration. This action helps the healthcare professional assess the client's baseline respiratory status and detect any potential respiratory depression that may be exacerbated by morphine. Choice B, administering naloxone, is incorrect because naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose and not routinely administered before giving morphine. Choice C, checking the client's pain level, is important but not the first action to take before administering morphine. Choice D, assessing the client's blood pressure, is also important but not the initial priority compared to evaluating respiratory status when preparing to administer morphine.

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