a nurse in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury which of t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, the priority action for the nurse is to administer 100% humidified oxygen. This is crucial to maintain the airway and address respiratory distress, which takes precedence over obtaining an ECG, collecting blood for ABG analysis, or inserting an IV catheter. Providing oxygen therapy is essential in ensuring the client's oxygenation and respiratory function are optimized in this emergency situation.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a wound infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include about home care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the wound covered with a dry dressing.' When providing care for a wound infection, it is essential to keep the wound covered with a dry dressing to prevent further contamination and promote healing. Soaking the wound in warm water (choice A) can introduce moisture and increase the risk of infection. Using hydrogen peroxide (choice B) can be too harsh and may slow down the healing process by damaging healthy tissue. Applying a cold compress (choice C) is not typically recommended for wound infections, as it may not provide the necessary environment for healing.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by observing which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because when a client reports feeling less anxious, it suggests that the treatment for a pulmonary embolism is effective. This is a good indicator of the client's overall well-being and response to treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a chest x-ray revealing increased density in all fields, diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally, and ABG results showing specific values do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. While these assessments are important for monitoring the client's condition, the client's subjective report of feeling less anxious provides a more direct insight into the impact of the treatment.

4. A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

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