Nursing Elites

1. A client discharges AMA (against medical advice). This is an example of the _________ type of risk category?

• A. nurse-focused
• B. physician-focused
• C. medical-legal incident
• D. Patient-focused

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client discharges AMA, it falls under the medical-legal incident risk category. This choice focuses on the legal aspect of the situation, as it involves the patient's right to make decisions about their care, informed consent, and the associated legal implications. Choices A and B are incorrect as they unnecessarily specify individual healthcare roles and do not encompass the broader legal implications of discharging against medical advice. Choice D, patient-focused, is also incorrect as it doesn't capture the legal and risk-related aspects of the scenario.

2. What is dysfunctional turnover?

• A. Retaining all employees.
• B. Losing employees consistently.
• C. Losing highly skilled employees who are hard to replace.
• D. Hiring new employees.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dysfunctional turnover refers to the loss of valuable, skilled employees who are challenging to replace. This turnover can be detrimental to an organization's performance and productivity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dysfunctional turnover specifically involves losing high-quality employees, not retaining all employees, losing employees consistently, or hiring new employees.

3. What is the main focus of a clinical governance framework?

• A. Financial performance
• B. Regulatory compliance
• C. Patient care quality
• D. Staff satisfaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main focus of a clinical governance framework is patient care quality. This framework is designed to ensure that patient care is safe, effective, and patient-centered. Choice A, financial performance, is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, although financial aspects may be considered. Choice B, regulatory compliance, is important but not the primary focus of a clinical governance framework. Choice D, staff satisfaction, is also important but is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, which primarily centers around patient care quality.

4. How can a staff nurse recognize they are experiencing burnout? (EXCEPT)

• A. They are spending more time talking to staff on other units.
• B. Staff is questioning their clinical judgment.
• C. They sleep longer hours, sometimes coming in late to work.
• D. They are drinking alcohol more frequently to relax.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Recognizing burnout is essential to maintaining quality patient care. Spending more time talking to staff on other units is a common practice and does not necessarily indicate burnout. On the other hand, staff questioning their clinical judgment, sleeping longer hours or coming in late to work, and resorting to alcohol to relax are signs of burnout. These behaviors can impact patient care and indicate the professional is struggling to cope with stressors.

5. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Protective environment
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Contact precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. Contact precautions are used when there is a risk of transmission of infections through direct or indirect contact. In this scenario, the client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, indicating a potential for infection transmission through contact. Droplet precautions (choice A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment (choice B) is used for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions (choice C) are used for infections transmitted through small droplets that remain in the air, like tuberculosis. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.

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