Nursing Elites

1. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

• A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
• D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.

2. A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of

• A. iron.
• B. folic acid.
• C. cobalamin (vitamin B12).
• D. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cobalamin (vitamin B12). Methotrexate can lead to a deficiency in cobalamin, resulting in megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, increasing the oral intake of cobalamin is essential to address this deficiency. Choice A, iron, is incorrect because megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate is not typically due to iron deficiency. Choice B, folic acid, is also incorrect as methotrexate does not directly cause folic acid deficiency. Choice D, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), is incorrect as it is not directly related to megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate; instead, cobalamin is the key vitamin that needs attention.

3. An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to

• A. provide a diet high in vitamin K
• B. alternate periods of rest and activity
• C. teach the patient how to avoid injury
• D. place the patient on protective isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In severe hemolytic anemia, the priority nursing intervention is to alternate periods of rest and activity. This approach helps to balance activity levels to prevent excessive fatigue while promoting mobility and preventing complications such as muscle weakness or deconditioning. Providing a diet high in vitamin K (choice A) is not directly related to managing hemolytic anemia. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury (choice C) is important but may not be the immediate priority. Placing the patient on protective isolation (choice D) is not indicated for hemolytic anemia, as it is not a contagious condition.

4. The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the

• A. Schilling test
• B. bilirubin level
• C. gastric analysis
• D. stool occult blood

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: bilirubin level. Jaundice, characterized by scleral jaundice, is caused by the elevation of bilirubin levels associated with red blood cell hemolysis. Checking the bilirubin level in the laboratory results will help assess the severity of jaundice in the patient. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Schilling test is used to assess vitamin B12 absorption, gastric analysis is used to evaluate gastric function, and stool occult blood is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which are not directly related to evaluating jaundice in a patient with hemolytic anemia.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient post-coronary artery bypass graft procedure who is on a nitroglycerin intravenous drip. The nurse understands the importance of nitroglycerin with this procedure as:

• A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen supply.
• B. Increasing preload.
• C. Decreasing cardiac output.
• D. Decreasing afterload.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing afterload, which is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole. By reducing afterload, nitroglycerin helps the heart pump more effectively and decreases the workload on the heart. This results in improved cardiac output and decreased myocardial oxygen demand. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease myocardial oxygen supply, increase preload, or decrease cardiac output.

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