Nursing Elites

1. A 37-year-old woman has a 10 pack-year smoking history and has been using oral contraceptives for the past 2 years. The nurse should plan health education interventions knowing that this patient faces an increased risk of

• A. osteoporosis.
• B. dementia.
• C. myocardial infarction.
• D. deep vein thrombosis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: myocardial infarction. Women aged 35 and older who smoke, especially with a history of 10 pack-years like in this case, face an increased risk of cardiovascular disorders, including myocardial infarction, when using oral contraceptives. Choice A, osteoporosis, is incorrect because smoking and oral contraceptives do not significantly increase the risk of osteoporosis. Choice B, dementia, is not directly associated with smoking, oral contraceptives, or their combination. Choice D, deep vein thrombosis, is a risk associated with oral contraceptives, especially in combination with smoking, but the highest increased risk in this case is for myocardial infarction.

2. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

• A. They improve treatment adherence.
• B. They reduce the duration of illness.
• C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
• D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy.
• D. Initiate CPR.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (Choice A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.

4. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?

• A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
• C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
• D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.

5. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

• A. Decreases calcium excretion by the kidneys.
• B. Increases intestinal absorption of calcium.
• C. Stimulates bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.
• D. Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

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