Nursing Elites

1. A ___________ manager supervises a number of first-level managers, usually within related specialties.

• A. self-directed
• B. first-level
• C. middle-level
• D. self-motivated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A middle-level manager is responsible for overseeing a group of first-level managers who handle day-to-day operations within their respective specialties. Middle-level managers play a crucial role in coordinating and aligning the efforts of multiple first-level managers to achieve organizational goals. They act as a bridge between top management and frontline employees, ensuring that strategies are effectively implemented at the operational level. Choice A, 'self-directed,' refers to an individual's ability to manage their own work without direct supervision and does not specifically relate to supervising other managers. Choice B, 'first-level,' describes the managers being supervised, not the position responsible for overseeing them. Choice D, 'self-motivated,' pertains to an individual's drive and determination, which is not directly related to the hierarchical level of management being discussed.

2. When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client, what action should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?

• A. Keep the feet close together.
• B. Use the back muscles for lifting.
• C. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting it.
• D. Bend at the waist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Keep the feet close together.' When lifting a heavy object such as a bedside cabinet, it is essential to maintain a wide base of support by keeping the feet close together. This provides better stability and reduces the risk of injury. Choice B is incorrect because using the back muscles for lifting can lead to back strain and injury; it is recommended to use the legs instead. Choice C is incorrect as standing close to the cabinet may cause the nurse to lose balance and strain the back. Choice D is incorrect because bending at the waist increases the risk of back injury. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to keep the feet close together to ensure stability and prevent self-injury.

3. Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event in healthcare?

• A. A patient falling in the hospital without injury
• B. A near-miss medication error
• C. An unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness
• D. A patient developing an infection during a hospital stay

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A sentinel event in healthcare is an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness. These events are serious occurrences that warrant immediate investigation and response to prevent their recurrence and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and D do not fit the definition of a sentinel event. While choices A, B, and D are serious incidents, they do not involve an unexpected patient death unrelated to the natural course of illness, which is the defining characteristic of a sentinel event.

4. When a client with a terminal diagnosis asks about advance directives, what should the nurse do?

• A. Engage the client and ask why they want to discuss this without their partner present.
• B. Provide information on advance directives and offer brochures.
• C. Advise the client to schedule a discussion with their provider.
• D. Focus on the client's current feelings and postpone planning for a later time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct response as it demonstrates active listening and empathy by engaging the client in a discussion about their concerns regarding advance directives. It also recognizes the importance of involving the client's partner in such discussions, promoting shared decision-making and support. Choices B and C lack the personalized approach needed in this situation and do not address the client's immediate request for information. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the client's expressed need to discuss advance directives and focuses solely on their current feelings, delaying a crucial conversation.

5. A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the healthcare provider should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
• B. Administer IV potassium supplements
• C. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels
• D. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial priority is to assess for any cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalances. Since the patient has a low serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L, placing the patient on a cardiac monitor is crucial to monitor for any potential cardiac complications. Administering IV potassium supplements (Choice B) may be needed, but it is not the first action to take. Obtaining urine glucose and ketone levels (Choice C) and starting an insulin infusion (Choice D) are important interventions in managing DKA, but ensuring patient safety by monitoring for arrhythmias takes precedence.

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