Nursing Elites

1. A ___________ manager supervises a number of first-level managers, usually within related specialties.

• A. self-directed
• B. first-level
• C. middle-level
• D. self-motivated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A middle-level manager is responsible for overseeing a group of first-level managers who handle day-to-day operations within their respective specialties. Middle-level managers play a crucial role in coordinating and aligning the efforts of multiple first-level managers to achieve organizational goals. They act as a bridge between top management and frontline employees, ensuring that strategies are effectively implemented at the operational level. Choice A, 'self-directed,' refers to an individual's ability to manage their own work without direct supervision and does not specifically relate to supervising other managers. Choice B, 'first-level,' describes the managers being supervised, not the position responsible for overseeing them. Choice D, 'self-motivated,' pertains to an individual's drive and determination, which is not directly related to the hierarchical level of management being discussed.

2. Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)

• A. Your confidence in your clinical skills.
• B. How many hours of overtime you will work.
• C. Your ability to work as a team member.
• D. Your clinical competence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When selecting new staff, interviewers are primarily interested in candidates' confidence in clinical skills, ability to work as a team member, and clinical competence. They are not concerned with how many hours of overtime a candidate is willing to work. Overtime hours may be important at times, but it is not a characteristic that an interviewer would prioritize when selecting new staff. Choices A, C, and D are essential qualities that interviewers look for in potential staff as they contribute to providing professional nursing care.

3. A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the healthcare provider should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor
• B. Administer IV potassium supplements
• C. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels
• D. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial priority is to assess for any cardiac arrhythmias due to electrolyte imbalances. Since the patient has a low serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L, placing the patient on a cardiac monitor is crucial to monitor for any potential cardiac complications. Administering IV potassium supplements (Choice B) may be needed, but it is not the first action to take. Obtaining urine glucose and ketone levels (Choice C) and starting an insulin infusion (Choice D) are important interventions in managing DKA, but ensuring patient safety by monitoring for arrhythmias takes precedence.

4. A nurse manager is preparing the budget for the year. The budgeted amounts have been set without regard to changes that may occur during the year. What type of budget is the manager preparing?

• A. Fixed budget
• B. Zero-based budget
• C. Variable budget
• D. Operating budget

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fixed budget. A fixed budget is one where the budgeted amounts are set without considering changes that may occur during the year. This type of budget is based on the assumption that the business environment will remain stable. Choice B, Zero-based budget, involves setting the budget at zero and justifying all expenses. Choice C, Variable budget, adjusts based on changes in activity levels. Choice D, Operating budget, is a comprehensive projection of all revenue and expenses for the upcoming period.

5. Although technology has seen many advances, which two ethical principles may be in conflict because of technology?

• A. Beneficence and justice
• B. Beneficence and nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence and veracity
• D. Beneficence and confidentiality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beneficence and nonmaleficence. Beneficence refers to the obligation to do good and act in the best interest of the patient, while nonmaleficence means to 'do no harm.' With advances in technology, there can be situations where the pursuit of benefit (beneficence) may inadvertently cause harm (nonmaleficence), leading to a conflict between these two ethical principles. Choice A, beneficence and justice, is incorrect because justice pertains to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments, not conflicting directly with beneficence. Choice C, beneficence and veracity, involves the obligation to tell the truth and is not in direct conflict with beneficence. Choice D, beneficence and confidentiality, relate to maintaining privacy and trust, which can complement rather than conflict with beneficence in most cases.

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