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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. Who typically collects blood specimens?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nurses typically collect blood specimens from patients as part of their everyday duties in medical settings. They are trained in venipuncture techniques and are responsible for ensuring that blood samples are properly obtained and labeled for diagnostic testing. Medical technologists process and analyze the blood specimens in the laboratory under the direction of a physician. Physicians are not commonly involved in the direct collection of blood specimens. While phlebotomists are specialized professionals trained to draw blood, in many medical settings, nurses perform this task as part of their responsibilities.

2. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate the ulcers and delay healing. Choices A, B, and C could potentially worsen the condition. Brushing with a soft-bristle toothbrush may cause discomfort, rinsing with Listerine mouthwash can be too harsh on the ulcers, and swallowing antifungal solution is not recommended unless specified by a healthcare provider.

3. Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Recommend awards and promotions'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Accountability.' Accountability involves recommending awards and promotions as part of managing personnel. This responsibility revolves around assessing employee performance and recognizing achievements through awards and promotions. Choice B, 'Personal/professional development,' focuses on enhancing employees' skills and knowledge, not specifically related to recommending awards or promotions. Choice C, 'Individual training,' pertains to providing instruction and guidance to improve specific skills, not directly linked to awarding or promoting individuals. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' deals with maintaining physical standards and presentation, unrelated to recommending awards and promotions.

4. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

5. During synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated, and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after the machine is activated during synchronized cardioversion is to shout “all clear” and ensure that no one is touching the client or the bed to prevent them from being shocked. This step is crucial for the safety of everyone present during the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting without confirming safety, focusing on the client's condition only, or increasing joules without safety precautions can lead to potential harm or injury.

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