Nursing Elites

1. Who typically collects blood specimens?

• A. The nurse
• B. Medical technologist
• C. Physician
• D. Phlebotomist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nurses typically collect blood specimens from patients as part of their everyday duties in medical settings. They are trained in venipuncture techniques and are responsible for ensuring that blood samples are properly obtained and labeled for diagnostic testing. Medical technologists process and analyze the blood specimens in the laboratory under the direction of a physician. Physicians are not commonly involved in the direct collection of blood specimens. While phlebotomists are specialized professionals trained to draw blood, in many medical settings, nurses perform this task as part of their responsibilities.

2. Which of the following is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that provides general and specialized medical and dental care and treatment?

• A. CONUS
• B. MEDCEN
• C. MEDCOM
• D. MEDDAC

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'MEDCEN.' A MEDCEN (Medical Center) is a specialized medical treatment and teaching facility that offers general and specialized medical and dental care. Choice A, 'CONUS,' refers to the continental United States and is not related to medical facilities. Choice C, 'MEDCOM,' stands for Medical Command, which is an administrative entity responsible for overseeing medical units, not providing direct care. Choice D, 'MEDDAC,' refers to Medical Department Activity, which is a smaller medical unit compared to a MEDCEN and may not provide the same level of specialized care.

3. Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

• A. Evaluation
• B. Planning
• C. Implementation
• D. Assessment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In nursing care, implementation involves putting the nursing care plan into action. This step includes safeguarding the rights and privacy of the patient and their family by providing care in a respectful and confidential manner. Evaluation (A) is about assessing the effectiveness of the care provided. Planning (B) is the stage where specific interventions are designed. Assessment (D) is the initial step where data is collected to identify the patient's needs.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

• A. Sitting
• B. Prone
• C. Sidelying
• D. Supine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

5. In managing cystic fibrosis, which nutrition therapy is crucial for patients with pancreatic insufficiency?

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is vital for aiding digestion. This therapy helps compensate for the decreased production of digestive enzymes by the pancreas, enabling the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients. Options A, B, and C are not the primary focus of nutrition therapy for cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency.

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