ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5
1. Which of the following drugs may cause weight gain?
- A. Amphetamines
- B. Steroids
- C. Antibiotics
- D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Steroids. Steroids are known to cause weight gain as a side effect. Amphetamines, choice A, are more likely to cause appetite suppression and weight loss. Antibiotics, choice C, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, choice D, are not typically associated with weight gain as a common side effect.
2. The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Escort the client to the physical therapy department
- B. Medicate the client 30 minutes before going to the whirlpool
- C. Obtain the sterile dressing supplies for the client
- D. Assist the client to the bathroom prior to the treatment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pain management is essential before the procedure to ensure the client’s comfort and cooperation during the dressing change. Escorting the client to the physical therapy department (Choice A) is not the priority at this point. Obtaining sterile dressing supplies (Choice C) is important but not the priority before addressing pain management. Assisting the client to the bathroom (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for a dressing change in the whirlpool.
3. A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?
- A. Yogurt and mozzarella
- B. Spinach and beef
- C. Fish and cottage cheese
- D. Turkey slices and milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.
4. For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
- A. 45-year-old; 2 years post kidney transplant; second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia; no urine output for 6 hours; temperature 101.4°F; heart rate of 98 beats per minute; respirations 20 breaths per minute; blood pressure 88/72 mm Hg; is restless
- B. 72-year-old; 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion); temperature 97.8°F; heart rate 92 beats per minute; respirations 28 breaths per minute; blood pressure 132/86 mm Hg; anxious about going home
- C. 56-year-old fourth hospital day after a coronary artery bypass procedure; sore chest; pain with walking temperature 97°F; heart rate 84 beats per minute; respirations 22 breaths per minute; blood pressure 87/72 mm Hg; bored with hospitalization.
- D. 86-year-old; 48 hours postoperative repair of a fractured hip (nail inserted; alert; oriented; using patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump; temperature 96.8°F; heart rate 60 beats per minute; respirations 16 breaths per minute; blood pressure 90/62 mm Hg; talking with daughter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.
5. The nurse enters a client’s room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client’s record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
- A. Telephone the client’s family and have them persuade the client to stay
- B. Have the client read and sign all the appropriate self-discharge papers
- C. Explain to the client that he cannot leave because he asked for treatment
- D. Notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s stated intent to leave the hospital
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client’s healthcare provider of the client’s intention to leave the hospital. This is important to ensure that the client’s care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is incorrect as involving the family without proper assessment or intervention could violate the client's autonomy. Option B is incorrect because it does not involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the client's rights to make decisions about their own care.
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