Nursing Elites

1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

2. A client has a prescription for Erythromycin. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Expect your urine to turn dark yellow.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report persistent diarrhea to your provider.' Erythromycin is known to cause Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, which can be severe. Instructing the client to report any persistent diarrhea to their healthcare provider promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Erythromycin with food is generally recommended to reduce stomach upset, but it is not the most critical instruction. Expecting urine to turn dark yellow is not a common side effect of Erythromycin. Taking Erythromycin with a full glass of milk is not necessary and may not be appropriate for all clients, especially those with lactose intolerance or dairy allergies.

3. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
• C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
• D. Swallow the tablet with water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.

4. A client has a new prescription for Timolol. How should the nurse instruct the client to insert eye drops?

• A. Press your finger on the inside corner of your eye for 1 minute after application.
• B. Apply the eye drops directly to the cornea.
• C. Drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac.
• D. Wipe your eyes gently with a tissue immediately after application.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering eye drops, it is essential to instruct the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps ensure proper distribution of the medication and reduces the risk of potential adverse effects. Pressing on the inside corner of the eye is done to prevent systemic absorption, applying drops directly to the cornea can cause irritation, and wiping the eyes after application can lead to decreased effectiveness of the medication.

5. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

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