a provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder the medication has a long half life of 4 days how many times per day shou
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

2. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. Instruct the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption and avoid interactions with food or beverages that may decrease absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking Ferrous sulfate with milk can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to taking it before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of Ferrous sulfate.

3. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin, and a healthcare provider is providing education. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report tinnitus, as it can be an indication of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity is damage to the inner ear structures that can lead to hearing loss, making it crucial for the client to report any early signs such as tinnitus to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in the context of cisplatin therapy. Nausea and constipation are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is not a typical side effect associated with cisplatin therapy and is less likely to be related to the medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to expect to feel drowsy. Clonidine is known to cause drowsiness, especially at the beginning of treatment. It is important for clients to be cautious with activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase high-potassium foods with Clonidine. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice can interact with many medications but is not a typical instruction for Clonidine. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific indication to avoid foods high in fat with Clonidine.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Ephedrine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ephedrine is not typically used to treat COPD. While it can help relieve symptoms like congestion and hypotension, it is not a first-line treatment for COPD. Incontinence is not a condition commonly treated with Ephedrine either.

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