ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?
- A. Red meat
- B. Chicken
- C. Fish
- D. Dairy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.
2. The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor vital signs every two (2) hours until stable
- B. Weigh the client in the same clothing at the same time daily
- C. Administer mouth care every eight (8) hours
- D. A, B, and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.
3. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
- A. Platelets
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium
- D. Vitamin B12
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
4. The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?
- A. Second intercostal space, right sternal border
- B. Erb’s point
- C. Second intercostal space, left sternal border
- D. Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.
5. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Wait until the machine discharges
- B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
- C. Make sure the client is all right
- D. Increase the joules and re-discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.
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