ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?
- A. Red meat
- B. Chicken
- C. Fish
- D. Dairy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.
2. What is the most crucial and most difficult management skill required of the M6 practical nurse?
- A. Preparing time schedules and task assignment rosters
- B. Inspecting equipment for damage and proper function
- C. Preparing reports and maintaining records
- D. Effectively managing personnel
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Effectively managing personnel. In a healthcare setting, managing personnel is crucial as it involves leading, motivating, and coordinating the healthcare team to ensure quality patient care. While tasks like preparing schedules, inspecting equipment, and maintaining records are important, managing personnel involves dealing with human factors, conflicts, and emotions, making it the most challenging skill for a practical nurse.
3. The client has failed to conceive after many attempts over a three-year time period and asks the nurse, “I have tried everything. What should I do now?” Which statement is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume
- B. Change the surgical dressing every day at the same time
- C. Monitor the client’s medication levels daily
- D. Monitor the percentage of each meal eaten
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's best response should focus on providing empathetic support and guiding the client to explore further options, such as fertility specialists or treatments. Assessing intravenous fluids for rate and volume is not relevant to the client's concern about infertility. Changing surgical dressing, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are all unrelated to the client's fertility issues.
4. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
- A. Dorsal recumbent
- B. Side lying
- C. Supine
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. The other options (dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine) do not provide the same level of access and visualization as the lithotomy position, making them less ideal for vaginal and cervical examinations.
5. Which laboratory data indicate the client’s pancreatitis is improving?
- A. The amylase and lipase serum levels are decreased
- B. The white blood cell count (WBC) is decreased
- C. The conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin levels are decreased
- D. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) serum level is decreased
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are enzymes specifically related to pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. White blood cell count (WBC), choices C and D, are not direct markers for pancreatitis improvement. Bilirubin levels, choice C, are more related to liver function rather than pancreatitis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, choice D, is a marker for kidney function, not pancreatitis.
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