a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for furosemide which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Eat a diet high in potassium.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Instructing the client to eat a diet high in potassium can help counteract the potassium-wasting effect of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide can be taken at different times of the day based on individual needs. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a general instruction for all clients taking furosemide.

2. When a client has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, what adverse effect should they monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can lead to sedation as an adverse effect. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness when taking this medication to prevent any potential harm. Monitoring for sedation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated with Dextromethorphan use. While some individuals may experience gastrointestinal upset, central nervous system effects like sedation are more commonly observed.

3. A client has a new prescription for Cyclobenzaprine to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include in the teaching for a client prescribed Cyclobenzaprine is to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication. Cyclobenzaprine can cause drowsiness, so it is important to advise clients to avoid activities that require alertness and coordination to prevent accidents or injuries. Choice B is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect because Cyclobenzaprine is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when experiencing muscle pain. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while taking Cyclobenzaprine.

4. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

5. A client is prescribed Propranolol for dysrhythmia. Which action should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when administering Propranolol to a client with dysrhythmia is to assist the client when transitioning to a sitting or standing position. Propranolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness during position changes, so it is essential to help the client move slowly to prevent falls or injuries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because holding Propranolol based on pulse rate, monitoring blood pressure after administration, and monitoring potassium levels are not directly related to the common side effect of orthostatic hypotension associated with Propranolol.

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