a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for captopril which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

2. A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with the use of serotonergic medications like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a combination of symptoms, including fever, agitation, rapid heartbeat, sweating, shivering, tremors, and in severe cases, it can lead to seizures, coma, and even death. Bruising (Choice A), abdominal pain (Choice C), and rash (Choice D) are not typically associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring for fever as an early sign of serotonin syndrome in clients taking Sertraline.

3. A client is taking atorvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle pain should be reported immediately as it can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a severe adverse effect of atorvastatin. Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by muscle pain, weakness, and can lead to serious complications such as kidney damage, making it crucial for the nurse to notify the provider promptly. Headache, nausea, and diarrhea are common side effects of atorvastatin and do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

4. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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