ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. Which of the following medications, when used concurrently with Digoxin, places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Phenytoin
- B. Verapamil
- C. Warfarin
- D. Aluminum hydroxide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to Digoxin toxicity. When these medications are used together, the client is at an increased risk. Phenytoin (Choice A) does not significantly impact digoxin levels. Warfarin (Choice C) and aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is Verapamil (Choice B) due to its potential to raise digoxin levels and cause toxicity.
2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the condition. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should eat small, frequent meals that are low in fiber.
- B. I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
- C. I should take NSAIDs to relieve my pain.
- D. I will drink milk before bedtime to decrease acid production.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.' Limiting intake of caffeine-containing beverages is important for managing peptic ulcer disease as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the condition. It is advisable to choose decaffeinated beverages and avoid caffeinated drinks to help reduce the risk of aggravating the ulcer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests eating small, frequent meals low in fiber, which is not ideal for managing peptic ulcer disease. Choice C of taking NSAIDs is contraindicated as NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers. Choice D of drinking milk before bedtime to decrease acid production is a common misconception; while milk may temporarily neutralize stomach acid, it can stimulate more acid production later, making the condition worse.
3. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
- B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
- C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
- D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.
4. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?
- A. Vitamin K1
- B. Protamine
- C. Omeprazole
- D. Probenecid
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole or another proton pump inhibitor is commonly prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help alleviate these symptoms by reducing gastric acid secretion, which can contribute to gastrointestinal discomfort. Vitamin K1 is not indicated for adverse effects of dabigatran. Protamine is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Probenecid is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?
- A. Name
- B. Dosage
- C. Route
- D. Frequency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access