a nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia what clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

2. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

3. One of the reasons hospital patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be is because:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments, which increases the risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice B is incorrect because hospital routines do not specifically interfere with the timing of medications in relation to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect because the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not directly relate to an increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice D is incorrect as sharing responsibility for monitoring does not inherently increase the risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospital patients.

4. Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In nursing care, implementation involves carrying out and supervising the planned procedures for the patient. This step focuses on putting the care plan into action. Choice A, Evaluation, involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, not performing procedures. Choice B, Planning, is about developing a plan of care, not executing it. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to determine the patient's needs, not the step involving performing and supervising procedures.

5. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member witnessed by two healthcare providers is the appropriate action to ensure informed consent is obtained. Option A is not necessary and involves legal proceedings. Option B is not ethical as the nurse cannot sign the consent on behalf of the client. Option C is unsafe and violates the client's rights by proceeding without proper consent.

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