Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia is expected to exhibit which clinical finding?

• A. Crying
• B. Self-mutilation
• C. Immobile posturing
• D. Repetitious activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, immobile posturing is a common clinical finding where the patient may maintain a rigid or bizarre posture for prolonged periods. Crying (Choice A) is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Self-mutilation (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions like borderline personality disorder. Repetitious activities (Choice D) are not a hallmark symptom of catatonic schizophrenia.

2. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

• A. “Has your child had any sore throats?”
• B. “Has your child been eating properly?”
• C. “Is your child allergic to any antibiotics?”
• D. “Has your child been exposed to any infections?”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the mother before administering an MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is whether the child is allergic to any antibiotics. This is crucial because vaccines like MMR contain components that the child could be allergic to, such as neomycin. Checking for antibiotic allergies is essential to prevent adverse reactions to the vaccine. The other options are less relevant in this context. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections does not directly impact the administration of the MMR vaccine.

3. What is the best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination?

• A. Dorsal recumbent
• B. Side lying
• C. Supine
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The lithotomy position is the most suitable position for procedures involving vaginal and cervical examination because it provides the best access to the vaginal and cervical regions. In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs flexed and feet placed in stirrups, allowing for optimal visualization and access to the area. This position facilitates proper examination, diagnosis, and treatment when working in the gynecological field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the necessary exposure and access required for a thorough vaginal and cervical examination. Dorsal recumbent, side lying, and supine positions may limit visibility and hinder the examination process in such cases.

4. How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?

• A. 46 weeks
• B. 18 months
• C. 6 weeks
• D. 52 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.

5. In which situation(s) does the nurse act as a client advocate?

• A. Pulling the curtain around the client’s bed while changing a dressing
• B. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client
• C. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the situations listed reflect aspects of client advocacy. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity for the client, which is an essential part of advocacy. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client involves advocating for the client's needs and preferences. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only is another way the nurse advocates for the client by safeguarding their confidentiality and promoting proper communication. Choices A, B, and C all demonstrate different aspects of advocacy, making option D the correct choice.

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