Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage?

• A. Lispro (Humalog)
• B. Glargine (Lantus)
• C. Detemir (Levemir)
• D. NPH (Humulin N)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For mealtime coverage in intensive insulin therapy, rapid-acting insulins like Lispro (Humalog) are used. Lispro has a quick onset of action, making it suitable for covering the rise in blood sugar levels after meals. Glargine (Lantus), Detemir (Levemir), and NPH (Humulin N) are all long-acting insulins and are not appropriate for mealtime coverage as they do not act quickly enough to manage postprandial glucose spikes.

2. What are the final stages of the conflict process?

• A. Antecedent conditions
• B. Perceived and felt conflict
• C. Suppression and resolution
• D. Conflict behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The final stages of the conflict process involve suppression and resolution. After conflicts have been perceived and felt, individuals and parties typically move towards suppressing the conflict (trying to avoid it) and ultimately resolving it. Antecedent conditions refer to factors that exist before conflict arises and do not represent the final stages. Conflict behavior relates to the actions taken during a conflict rather than its final stages.

3. Penalties should be __________ .

• A. Determining the employee's awareness of the policy
• B. Describing the staff nurse's behavior that violated the policy
• C. Progressive
• D. Confrontation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penalties for policy violations should be progressive. This means that the disciplinary actions should escalate based on the severity or frequency of the violation. For minor infractions, like smoking in an unauthorized area, a progressive approach may include oral warnings, written warnings, suspension, and termination if the behavior persists. In contrast, major violations, such as theft, may warrant immediate and severe consequences like suspension or termination. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the concept of progressively escalating penalties based on the violation's severity or recurrence.

4. One of the steps in coaching is often overlooked and taken for granted. What is this step?

• A. Stating the target
• B. Jumping to conclusions
• C. Asking for suggestions
• D. Tying the problem to clients' care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In coaching, tying the problem to clients' care is crucial but often overlooked. This step ensures that the coach and the client focus on issues directly impacting the client's well-being. Stating the target (choice A) is important but not as critical as tying the problem to clients' care. Jumping to conclusions (choice B) is counterproductive in coaching as it may lead to incorrect assumptions. Asking for suggestions (choice C) is valuable, but it does not address the core aspect of linking the issue to the client's care, which is essential for effective coaching.

5. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

• A. Only during highly stressful situations.
• B. When there is little to no stress.
• C. Under highly structured situations.
• D. When the situation is loosely structured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

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