HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a heart murmur. The healthcare provider is preparing to auscultate the pulmonary valve. Over which of the following locations should the healthcare provider place the bell of the stethoscope?
- A. Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
- B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
- C. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
- D. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the pulmonary valve is the second intercostal space at the left sternal border. This area is where the pulmonary valve can best be heard due to its anatomical position. Choice B, the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, is the location for auscultating the mitral valve. Choice C, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the area for the tricuspid valve. Choice D, the fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line, is the site for listening to the mitral valve as well. Therefore, option A is the correct choice for auscultating the pulmonary valve.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform nasal tracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Hold the suction catheter with the non-dominant hand.
- B. Apply suctioning for 20 to 30 seconds.
- C. Place the catheter in a clean and dry location for later use.
- D. Use surgical asepsis when performing the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Using surgical asepsis when performing nasal tracheal suctioning is crucial to prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because the suction catheter should be held with the dominant hand to ensure better control and precision during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning should be applied for no longer than 10 to 15 seconds to avoid trauma to the mucous membranes. Choice C is incorrect as the catheter should be disposed of properly after single-use to prevent cross-contamination and infection.
3. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?
- A. Spaghetti
- B. Watermelon
- C. Chicken
- D. Tomatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to eat daily when taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon helps maintain adequate potassium levels. Spaghetti, chicken, and tomatoes are not as high in potassium and therefore not as beneficial in preventing hypokalemia related to furosemide use.
4. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Protective environment
- B. Airborne precautions
- C. Droplet precautions
- D. Contact precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. When a client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, contact precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection through direct contact. Protective environment precautions are used for immunocompromised clients, airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, and droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets. In this case, the focus is on preventing direct contact transmission, making contact precautions the most appropriate choice. Protective environment, airborne, and droplet precautions are not indicated in this scenario because the primary concern is the direct contact transmission of pathogens through the wound drainage.
5. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?
- A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
- B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
- C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
- D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.
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