Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a heart murmur. The healthcare provider is preparing to auscultate the pulmonary valve. Over which of the following locations should the healthcare provider place the bell of the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the pulmonary valve is the second intercostal space at the left sternal border. This area is where the pulmonary valve can best be heard due to its anatomical position. Choice B, the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, is the location for auscultating the mitral valve. Choice C, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the area for the tricuspid valve. Choice D, the fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line, is the site for listening to the mitral valve as well. Therefore, option A is the correct choice for auscultating the pulmonary valve.

2. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?

• A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
• B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
• C. The client has no signs of infection.
• D. The client is able to void independently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.

3. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
• D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?

• A. Tap just below the knee
• B. Tap on the upper thigh
• C. Tap on the ankle
• D. Tap on the lower leg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

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