HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a heart murmur. The healthcare provider is preparing to auscultate the pulmonary valve. Over which of the following locations should the healthcare provider place the bell of the stethoscope?
- A. Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
- B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
- C. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
- D. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the pulmonary valve is the second intercostal space at the left sternal border. This area is where the pulmonary valve can best be heard due to its anatomical position. Choice B, the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, is the location for auscultating the mitral valve. Choice C, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the area for the tricuspid valve. Choice D, the fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line, is the site for listening to the mitral valve as well. Therefore, option A is the correct choice for auscultating the pulmonary valve.
2. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
3. The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?
- A. BP 142/88 mmHg
- B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
- C. Radial pulse volume is +3
- D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Edema, indicated by 2+ edema of fingers and hands, can impair blood flow and peripheral perfusion, leading to reduced oxygen saturation readings on a pulse oximeter. High blood pressure (choice A) would not directly affect oxygen saturation readings. Radial pulse volume (choice C) and capillary refill time (choice D) are more related to assessing circulation rather than contributing significantly to oxygen saturation readings.
4. A client is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Discuss the risk factors for colorectal cancer.
- B. Focus teaching on addressing the client's anger and emotional response.
- C. Provide the client with emotional support and reassurance about his feelings.
- D. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. During the anger stage of grief, it is essential for the nurse to reassure the client that anger is a normal reaction to a cancer diagnosis. This validation of the client's emotions can help in providing emotional support. Choice A is incorrect because discussing risk factors for colorectal cancer does not address the client's current emotional state. Choice B is incorrect because focusing teaching on the client's future management does not directly address the client's need for emotional support in the present. Choice C is incorrect because providing written information about loss and grief phases is not as immediately comforting as directly reassuring the client about his feelings of anger.
5. The patient diagnosed with diabetes is reporting severe foot pain due to corns and has been using oval corn pads to self-treat the corns. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?
- A. Corn pads are an adequate treatment and should be continued.
- B. The patient should avoid soaking the feet before using a pumice stone.
- C. The current self-treatment is likely impeding circulation to the toes.
- D. Tighter shoes would help compress the corns and make them smaller.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the patient that using oval corn pads can increase pressure on the toes and impede circulation, which may exacerbate foot problems in patients with diabetes. It is important to avoid practices that restrict blood flow to the feet, as poor circulation can lead to serious complications. Soaking the feet and using a pumice stone can be beneficial for corns, but in this case, the current self-treatment with corn pads is not recommended. Tighter shoes would further increase pressure on the corns and should be avoided. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize the importance of proper foot care and recommend alternative treatments to promote foot health and prevent complications.
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