HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. Which nutritional assessment data should be collected to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?
- A. Height in inches or centimeters.
- B. Weight in kilograms or pounds.
- C. Triceps skinfold thickness.
- D. Upper arm circumference.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper arm circumference.' Upper arm circumference is a better indicator of total muscle mass in adolescents compared to height, weight, or triceps skinfold thickness. Triceps skinfold thickness primarily reflects subcutaneous fat, while weight and height are not specific to muscle mass. Upper arm circumference directly measures the muscle mass in the upper arm and can provide a more accurate assessment in this context. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect total muscle mass in adolescents.
2. A client who is malnourished expresses concern about losing their loose wedding ring. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. I can pin it to your hospital gown to prevent it from falling off.
- B. I will place it in your drawer to keep it safe.
- C. I will hold onto it until a family member can retrieve it.
- D. I can put it in a locked storage unit for you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to put the client's wedding ring in a locked storage unit for safekeeping. This ensures that the ring is secure and minimizes the risk of loss or damage. Choices A, B, and C do not provide the same level of security and protection as placing the ring in a locked storage unit. Pinning it to the hospital gown (Choice A) may not be secure and could still lead to loss. Placing it in the client's drawer (Choice B) may not guarantee its safety. Holding onto it until a family member retrieves it (Choice C) leaves the ring vulnerable to misplacement or theft.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
- B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
- C. Position legs flat against the bed.
- D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
5. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.
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