HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?
- A. Reduces brain metabolism and systemic blood pressure
- B. Reduces cerebral edema
- C. Dehydrates the brain
- D. Draws fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.
2. The PN determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the PN take?
- A. Protect the client's feet from injury
- B. Apply a heating pad to the affected area
- C. Keep the client's feet elevated
- D. Assess the feet and legs for jaundice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is the most appropriate action for a client with cirrhosis experiencing peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to a loss of sensation, making the client prone to unnoticed injuries. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) is contraindicated as it may cause burns or further damage to the affected area. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy and may not provide significant benefit. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice (Choice D) is important for monitoring liver function in clients with cirrhosis, but in this case, the priority is to prevent injury to the feet due to decreased sensation.
3. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?
- A. Due date
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Gravida and parity
- D. Fundal height
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.
4. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
- B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
- C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
- D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.
5. Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Using sterile gloves
- B. Wearing a face mask
- C. Performing hand hygiene
- D. Using disposable equipment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Hand hygiene helps remove pathogens that could be transmitted through direct contact, making it a crucial practice in infection control. While using sterile gloves and disposable equipment are important in certain situations, they do not address the potential transmission of pathogens through direct contact, unlike hand hygiene. Wearing a face mask is important for respiratory precautions but may not be as effective as hand hygiene in preventing the spread of infections through direct contact.
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