inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. Which statement by a mature adult client with advanced prostate cancer best indicates that he has reached a level of acceptance of his prognosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because finding support in faith and family is a common way for individuals to cope with serious illnesses and come to terms with their prognosis. This statement indicates that the client has found a source of strength and comfort to deal with their situation. Choice A reflects defiance rather than acceptance. Choice C suggests denial or disbelief in the diagnosis. Choice D shows factual knowledge about the disease but does not necessarily indicate acceptance of the prognosis.

3. The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.

4. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.

5. The nurse and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The nurse determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the nurse give the UAP first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the UAP to obtain emergency help first. In a situation where a client is unresponsive, the priority is to ensure that help is summoned promptly. This allows for the availability of necessary resources and assistance for resuscitation or other emergency interventions. Feeling for a carotid pulse or checking the blood pressure can be important assessments but are secondary to obtaining immediate help. Bringing a glucometer to the room, while relevant in certain situations, is not the priority when the client's unresponsiveness indicates a need for urgent intervention.

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