inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.

3. While turning and positioning a bedfast client, the PN observes that the client is dyspneic. Which action should the PN take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Notifying the charge nurse promptly is the priority when a bedfast client is dyspneic. Dyspnea can indicate a serious problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Contacting the charge nurse ensures timely assistance and appropriate actions to address the client's condition. Applying a pulse oximeter or measuring blood pressure may provide valuable data, but the priority is prompt communication with the charge nurse to ensure quick intervention. Observing pressure areas, while important for overall client care, is not the most immediate action needed when a client is experiencing dyspnea.

4. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

5. When preparing a sterile field for a procedure, which action should the nurse take to maintain sterility?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain sterility when preparing a sterile field, it is essential to avoid reaching over the sterile field. This action can introduce contaminants from the nurse's clothing or unsterile areas, compromising the sterility of the field. Placing sterile items around the sterile field (choice A) is incorrect as it may increase the risk of contamination by extending the area where non-sterile items may come in contact. Keeping hands below waist level (choice B) is also incorrect as it does not prevent contamination effectively. Opening the sterile package away from the body (choice C) is incorrect since it exposes the contents to the nurse's body, which is not sterile.

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