Nursing Elites

1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

• A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
• B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
• C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
• D. Has severe laryngotracheitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

• A. Olfactory nerve
• B. Optic nerve
• C. Trigeminal nerve
• D. Vagus nerve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).

3. A client post-lobectomy is placed on mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices the client is fighting the ventilator. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the sedation as prescribed.
• B. Manually ventilate the client using an ambu bag.
• C. Check the ventilator settings and alarms.
• D. Suction the client’s airway.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client is fighting the ventilator is to check the ventilator settings and alarms. This step is crucial to ensure that the ventilator is functioning correctly and providing the necessary support to the client. Increasing sedation (Choice A) should only be considered after confirming that the ventilator settings are appropriate. While manually ventilating the client (Choice B) may be required in some cases, it is not the initial action to take. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation, where the primary concern is addressing the client's struggle with the ventilator.

4. In what order should the PN implement these steps to provide wound care? (Place in correct order.)

• A. Don procedure gloves
• B. Remove the dressing
• C. Apply prescribed medications to the wound
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - All of the Above.' The PN should first don procedure gloves to maintain aseptic technique, then remove the dressing to assess the wound, and finally apply prescribed medications to the wound. This sequence ensures that non-sterile tasks like donning gloves are done before sterile tasks like applying medications, reducing the risk of wound contamination. Choices A, B, and C are all essential steps in providing effective wound care.

5. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?

• A. Lyme disease
• B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
• C. Syphilis
• D. Toxoplasmosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.

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