inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. A client is post-operative day two from a total hip arthroplasty. The nurse notices the surgical wound is red and warm to the touch. What is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action when a nurse notices redness and warmth at the surgical wound post total hip arthroplasty is to notify the healthcare provider. These signs may indicate an infection, and prompt evaluation by the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice B) is important but not the priority when signs of infection are present. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor (Choice C) is necessary but should be accompanied by notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention.

3. A client who had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago reports tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips can indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication after thyroidectomy due to accidental damage to the parathyroid glands. Checking calcium levels is crucial as it helps in diagnosing hypocalcemia accurately. Administering calcium without knowing the actual calcium levels can be dangerous. Assessing the incision site for bleeding is important but not the priority in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after assessing and managing the immediate concern of hypocalcemia.

4. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.

5. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.

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