inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.

3. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

4. Which disorder is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease that specifically targets and damages the myelin sheath surrounding neurons in the central nervous system. This demyelination disrupts the transmission of nerve signals and leads to a variety of neurological symptoms. Parkinson's disease (Choice B), Alzheimer's disease (Choice C), and Huntington's disease (Choice D) are neurodegenerative disorders that do not primarily involve demyelination of neurons in the CNS. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons, Alzheimer's disease by the formation of plaques and tangles in the brain, and Huntington's disease by a genetic mutation affecting nerve cells.

5. A nurse is assessing a day-old infant for jaundice. Which of the following is the best method for this?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Applying pressure over a bony area and evaluating the skin color after the pressure is removed is the most accurate method for assessing jaundice in a day-old infant. This technique helps in identifying any yellowing of the skin, which is a key indicator of jaundice. Choices B, C, and D are less effective methods for assessing jaundice in a newborn. Assessing the color of the hands and feet may not give a reliable indication of jaundice, while evaluating the tongue, arms, and legs are not as specific or accurate as applying pressure over a bony area.

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