inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.

3. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

5. While turning and positioning a bedfast client, the PN observes that the client is dyspneic. Which action should the PN take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Notifying the charge nurse promptly is the priority when a bedfast client is dyspneic. Dyspnea can indicate a serious problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Contacting the charge nurse ensures timely assistance and appropriate actions to address the client's condition. Applying a pulse oximeter or measuring blood pressure may provide valuable data, but the priority is prompt communication with the charge nurse to ensure quick intervention. Observing pressure areas, while important for overall client care, is not the most immediate action needed when a client is experiencing dyspnea.

Similar Questions

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