HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?
- A. Calcium
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.
2. In obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Count the client's radial pulse
- B. Apply a blood pressure cuff
- C. Instruct the client to lie supine
- D. Assist the client to stand upright
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action when obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement is to instruct the client to lie supine. This allows for establishing a baseline measurement of vital signs before any positional changes. Counting the client's radial pulse (Choice A) is a step that follows after the initial supine position to assess changes in pulse rate. Applying a blood pressure cuff (Choice B) and assisting the client to stand upright (Choice D) are actions that come later in the process after the baseline measurements are obtained in the supine position.
3. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?
- A. Lyme disease
- B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
- C. Syphilis
- D. Toxoplasmosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.
4. The nurse is preparing to provide wound care for a client. Which step should be done first?
- A. Don procedural gloves
- B. Remove the dressing
- C. Apply prescribed medications to the wound
- D. Don a pair of sterile gloves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to don procedural gloves first. Donning procedural gloves is essential to protect the nurse from contaminants while removing the old dressing. This step helps maintain aseptic technique and prevents the transfer of microorganisms. Removing the dressing (choice B) should follow after wearing gloves to prevent the spread of pathogens. Applying prescribed medications (choice C) should be done after the wound is cleaned and dressed. Donning a pair of sterile gloves (choice D) is not necessary for initial wound care; procedural gloves are sufficient for standard wound care.
5. A client is recovering from a craniotomy and has a ventriculostomy in place. The nurse notices the drainage from the ventriculostomy is suddenly increasing. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- B. Clamp the ventriculostomy tube.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Measure the client's head circumference.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sudden increase in drainage from a ventriculostomy could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or hemorrhage. The priority action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention. Increasing the head of the bed may be beneficial in some situations but is not the first action to take. Clamping the ventriculostomy tube is inappropriate as it can lead to increased intracranial pressure. Measuring the client's head circumference is not the priority when there is a sudden increase in ventriculostomy drainage.
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