HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What is the primary function of surfactant in the lungs?
- A. Reduce surface tension
- B. Enhance oxygen absorption
- C. Facilitate carbon dioxide release
- D. Increase lung volume
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of surfactant in the lungs is to reduce surface tension in the alveoli. This reduction in surface tension prevents lung collapse and allows for easier breathing. It is particularly crucial in premature infants to help with lung expansion. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant primarily affects surface tension, not oxygen absorption. Choice C is incorrect because surfactant's main role is not in facilitating carbon dioxide release. Choice D is incorrect because surfactant does not directly increase lung volume; its main role is in reducing surface tension.
2. The PN is assisting the recreational director of a long-term care facility to plan outdoor activities for wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. Which activity meets the physical and social needs of these residents?
- A. An open-air concert
- B. A tea party in the courtyard
- C. A team ring-toss competition
- D. A picnic in the park
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A tea party in the courtyard is the most suitable activity as it allows for social interaction in a comfortable and accessible environment. Wheelchair-bound residents can easily participate, fostering both physical and social engagement. An open-air concert may pose challenges regarding accessibility and comfort for wheelchair-bound individuals. A team ring-toss competition involves physical activity that may not be inclusive for all residents, especially those in wheelchairs. A picnic in the park may also present challenges related to accessibility and comfort for wheelchair-bound individuals.
3. After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.
5. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side
- B. Ask the UAP to leave the room and assess the client's body for bruising
- C. Carefully observe the interaction between the client and family members
- D. Instruct the UAP to protect the client's left side when transferring to a chair
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.
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