HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What is the primary function of surfactant in the lungs?
- A. Reduce surface tension
- B. Enhance oxygen absorption
- C. Facilitate carbon dioxide release
- D. Increase lung volume
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of surfactant in the lungs is to reduce surface tension in the alveoli. This reduction in surface tension prevents lung collapse and allows for easier breathing. It is particularly crucial in premature infants to help with lung expansion. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant primarily affects surface tension, not oxygen absorption. Choice C is incorrect because surfactant's main role is not in facilitating carbon dioxide release. Choice D is incorrect because surfactant does not directly increase lung volume; its main role is in reducing surface tension.
2. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
- A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
- B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
- C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
- D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
3. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
- A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
- B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
- C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
- D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
4. During a fire incident in a long-term care facility's kitchen, which task is most crucial for the PN to perform instead of delegating to UAP?
- A. Close the doors to all residents' rooms
- B. Offer comfort and reassurance to each resident
- C. Identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident
- D. Provide blankets to each resident for use during evacuation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a fire emergency, the most critical task for the PN is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task ensures a safe and organized evacuation plan, which is essential for everyone's safety. Delegating this responsibility to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) may lead to errors or delays in the evacuation process. Closing doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but is not as urgent as planning the evacuation. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, it should not take precedence over ensuring a safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is helpful but does not directly address the primary concern of safely evacuating residents.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
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