HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Which of the following healthcare providers can legally have access to all, or part, of a patient's medical record because they have a 'need to know'? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Student nurses caring for a particular patient
- B. Registered nurses when they are not caring for a particular patient
- C. The Vice President for nursing who is investigating a patient fall
- D. Licensed practical nurses caring for a particular patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Student nurses, licensed practical nurses, the Vice President for nursing investigating a fall, and quality assurance nurses have a 'need to know' basis to access patient records. Registered nurses who are not directly involved in the care of a patient do not have a legitimate reason or 'need to know' to access that patient's medical records, making choice B the correct answer. The Vice President for nursing investigating a specific incident and licensed practical nurses directly involved in a patient's care have legitimate reasons to access the medical records, ensuring continuity and quality of care.
2. A client with a tumor refuses surgery, but the client's partner wants it. Which is the deciding factor in determining if the surgery will be done?
- A. Whether the partner is the client's durable power of attorney for healthcare
- B. Whether the client understands the risk of refusing the procedure
- C. Whether the client's refusal is based on religious belief
- D. Whether the facility's ethical committee reaches a consensus on the case
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client's understanding of the risks involved in refusing the surgery is crucial in determining the course of action. In this scenario, the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity take precedence. Choice A is not directly relevant to the decision-making process regarding surgery. Choice C, religious beliefs, may influence the decision but should not be the determining factor in this case. Choice D involving the facility's ethical committee is not typically involved in individual patient care decisions.
3. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?
- A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
- C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
- D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.
4. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
5. Alcohol, caffeine, or drugs are high-risk factors that all fall under which broad classification of risk factors?
- A. Social demographic
- B. Environmental
- C. Biophysical
- D. Psychosocial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Psychosocial. Alcohol, caffeine, or drug use are considered psychosocial risk factors as they are related to individual behavior, lifestyle choices, and social interactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Social demographic factors (choice A) refer to characteristics of a population such as age, gender, education, income, etc. Environmental factors (choice B) include physical surroundings like air quality, housing conditions, etc. Biophysical factors (choice C) involve biological aspects like genetics, physiology, and health conditions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access