Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

• A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
• B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
• C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
• D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

2. A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a client who states, “I always have trouble sleeping.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Teach the client stress reduction techniques
• B. Recommend that the client avoid caffeine intake in the evening
• C. Identify the client’s typical bedtime routine
• D. Encourage the client to exercise regularly during daytime hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to identify the client’s typical bedtime routine. Understanding the client’s sleep habits, environment, and bedtime rituals can provide valuable insight into potential factors contributing to their sleep troubles. Teaching stress reduction techniques (choice A) may be beneficial but should come after understanding the client's routine. Recommending avoiding caffeine intake in the evening (choice B) and encouraging regular daytime exercise (choice D) are important interventions, but identifying the bedtime routine takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's immediate concern.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen due to better absorption and reduced risk of injury to underlying structures. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin due to the potential risk of injury to underlying structures. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more appropriate for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections.

5. During an assessment, a client receiving tube feedings via NG tube shows signs of nasal mucosa irritation. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Irritation of nasal mucosa
• C. Sodium 144 mEq/L
• D. Loose stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritation of nasal mucosa is a crucial finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it suggests potential complications with NG tube placement, such as improper positioning or mucosal damage. High potassium levels (Choice A) can be concerning but are not directly related to NG tube placement issues. Normal sodium levels (Choice C) and loose stools (Choice D) are common occurrences in clients receiving tube feedings and are not typically indicative of immediate complications that require urgent reporting.

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