Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?

• A. Becoming actively involved in providing guidance to the next generation.
• B. Adjusting to major changes in roles and relationships due to losses.
• C. Devoting time to establishing an occupation.
• D. Finding oneself 'sandwiched' between and being responsible for two generations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.

2. A client who is postoperative is being taught how to use a flow-oriented incentive spirometer. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

• A. Cough deeply after each use.
• B. Take a deep breath and hold for 10 seconds.
• C. Breathe in slowly and deeply to raise the ball or piston.
• D. Exhale forcefully before using the spirometer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct technique for using a flow-oriented incentive spirometer involves breathing in slowly and deeply to raise the ball or piston. This action helps to expand the lungs and improve lung function. Option A is incorrect as coughing deeply after each use is not part of using the spirometer. Option B is incorrect as holding the breath for 10 seconds is not the correct instruction for using the spirometer. Option D is incorrect as exhaling forcefully before using the spirometer is not the appropriate step in using this device.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following laboratory values places the client at risk for poor wound healing?

• A. Serum albumin 3 g/dL
• B. Total lymphocyte count 2400/mm3
• C. HCT 42%
• D. HGB 16 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin 3 g/dL. Low levels of serum albumin indicate poor nutritional status and can impair wound healing. Total lymphocyte count, HCT, and HGB levels are not directly related to wound healing and do not pose a significant risk for poor wound healing in this context. Total lymphocyte count reflects the immune status, HCT measures the percentage of red blood cells in blood, and HGB measures the amount of hemoglobin in blood.

4. Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The healthcare professional understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of:

• A. Temperature
• B. Time
• C. Friction
• D. Soap

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Friction. The amount of friction is crucial in effective hand hygiene to remove microorganisms. Rubbing hands together with friction helps to dislodge and remove dirt, oils, and microorganisms. While temperature and soap are important factors in hand hygiene, the mechanical action of friction plays a more significant role in physically removing contaminants. Time is also important in hand hygiene practice, but without adequate friction, the effectiveness of the process is compromised.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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