Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client at the end of life, which statement by the client’s partner reflects effective coping?

• A. I am relying on support from our family during this time.
• B. I am feeling overwhelmed but don’t want to talk about it.
• C. I am managing everything on my own without help.
• D. I prefer to stay alone with my partner.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am relying on support from our family during this time.' When a client is at the end of life, relying on support from family can be an effective coping mechanism. It allows the partner to share the emotional burden, seek comfort, and prevent feelings of isolation. Choice B reflects a reluctance to express feelings, which can hinder coping mechanisms by internalizing stress. Choice C suggests handling everything alone, which can lead to burnout and emotional strain due to the overwhelming responsibilities. Choice D, preferring to stay alone with the partner, may limit access to external support that could provide additional emotional and practical assistance during this challenging time, making it a less effective coping strategy.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?

• A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
• B. I should increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.
• C. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.' Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is crucial as it helps prevent bleeding gums, which is a potential side effect of warfarin therapy. Option A about taking warfarin at the same time every day is a good practice but does not directly relate to preventing side effects. Option B suggesting an increase in green leafy vegetables can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects due to their vitamin K content. Option D advising to avoid alcohol is generally recommended but is not directly related to the specific side effects of warfarin.

3. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?

• A. Push hard and deep on the chest
• B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
• C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
• D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.

4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

5. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

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