HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?
- A. Communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse
- B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
- C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
- D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.
2. A client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease is receiving atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Serum potassium level
- C. Liver function tests (LFTs)
- D. Serum cholesterol level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of atorvastatin (Lipitor), the nurse should monitor liver function tests (LFTs) (C) because this medication can impact liver function. Complete blood count (CBC) (A), serum potassium level (B), and serum cholesterol level (D) are not directly indicative of the medication's effectiveness in managing coronary artery disease.
3. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:
- A. Asystole
- B. Bigeminy
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.
4. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?
- A. Report the incident to the supervisor for aseptic technique violation.
- B. Allow the completion of the procedure.
- C. Inquire about the contamination of the glove and sterile field.
- D. Identify the breach in surgical asepsis and provide a new set of sterile supplies.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.
5. A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?
- A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the healthcare professional could lose the case.
- B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the healthcare professional's license is likely to be revoked.
- C. There will be no judgment against the healthcare professional, whose actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
- D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) can be proved.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access