HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?
- A. Communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse
- B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
- C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
- D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.
2. A client is admitted with a fever of unknown origin. To assess fever patterns, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the client’s temperature fluctuations
- B. Assess for flushed, warm skin consistently
- C. Measure temperature at regular intervals
- D. Use different sites for temperature measurement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To assess fever patterns accurately, the nurse should measure the client’s temperature at regular intervals. This approach helps in identifying the pattern of fever spikes and fluctuations, which can provide valuable information for diagnostic and treatment purposes. Assessing for flushed, warm skin or documenting circadian rhythms may not directly reveal the fever pattern, while varying temperature measurement sites could lead to inconsistent readings. Therefore, measuring temperature at regular intervals is the most appropriate intervention to identify fever patterns in this scenario.
3. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
- B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
- C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
- D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.
4. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
5. When taking a client's blood pressure, the healthcare professional is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. What is the best action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
- B. Reinflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
- C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
- D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action when unable to distinguish the point of the first sound during blood pressure measurement is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. This allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring a more accurate reading the second time. It is important to ensure that the cuff is fully deflated and the appropriate wait time is given to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access