Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?

• A. Communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse
• B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
• C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
• D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.

2. A client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which assessment finding is most commonly associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Headache
• B. Dizziness
• C. Fatigue
• D. Edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache (A) is the most commonly associated symptom with primary hypertension due to increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to headaches. While dizziness (B), fatigue (C), and edema (D) may also occur in hypertension, headache is the most frequently reported symptom among individuals with primary hypertension.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

4. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.

5. At a motor vehicle collision site, a nurse applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely until emergency personnel arrive. Subsequently, the client undergoes leg amputation and sues the nurse for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

• A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the nurse could lose the case.
• B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the nurse's license is unlikely to be revoked.
• C. There will be no judgment against the nurse, as their actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) cannot be proved.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act shields healthcare professionals who act in good faith and offer reasonable care from malpractice claims, irrespective of the client's outcome. In this scenario, the nurse stopping to render aid at the accident scene and applying pressure to the bleeding groin wound would likely be covered by the Good Samaritan Act, protecting the nurse from legal repercussions related to the subsequent leg amputation.

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