HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The healthcare professional in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague’s assignment. Which action should the healthcare professional implement?
- A. Communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse
- B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
- C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
- D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Observing a colleague accessing a patient's EHR without a legitimate reason is a violation of HIPAA, which protects patient confidentiality. The appropriate action in this scenario is to communicate the colleague’s actions to the unit charge nurse immediately. The charge nurse can then address the issue internally and ensure that patient privacy is maintained. Reporting the incident through the appropriate channels within the healthcare facility is the most effective and professional way to handle such breaches of patient confidentiality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve addressing the issue internally within the healthcare facility. Reporting such incidents internally is essential to ensure that patient privacy is protected, and the matter is handled appropriately by healthcare authorities.
2. In a client with moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy who takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily, if Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
- A. Continue gabapentin.
- B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
- C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
- D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the presence of moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain, the WHO pain relief ladder recommends continuing gabapentin, as it is effective for managing both anxiety and pain. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, is not the mainstay for neuropathic pain relief according to the ladder and can be discontinued if needed. Aspirin is not typically added to the protocol for neuropathic pain management at this step. Methadone is reserved for severe pain and is not the standard choice at Step 2 of the WHO pain relief ladder for neuropathic pain.
3. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.25 mL
- D. 2.0 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.
4. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.
- B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.
- C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client.
- D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.
5. Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?
- A. To promote comfort.
- B. To promote drainage from the operation site.
- C. To promote thoracic expansion.
- D. To prevent circulatory overload.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.
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