Nursing Elites

1. During a follow-up visit, a home health nurse notices that a client with a gastrostomy tube, who receives intermittent feedings and medications, has developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

• A. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water.
• B. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag with hot water every 24 hours.
• C. The client’s caregiver changes the feeding bag every 48 hours.
• D. The client’s caregiver adds water to the formula before administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Washing out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water can lead to bacterial growth due to inadequate cleaning, potentially causing diarrhea. Hot water, as in choice B, can also promote bacterial growth, which is not desirable. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours, like in choice C, is within an acceptable timeframe and is unlikely to be a cause of diarrhea. Adding water to the formula before administration, as in choice D, is a common practice to dilute the formula but is not typically associated with causing diarrhea in this scenario.

2. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?

• A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
• B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
• C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
• D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Pain in the affected leg
• B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Swelling in the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs and can be life-threatening. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications. Pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT itself but do not pose the same level of immediate danger as the potential for a pulmonary embolism.

4. A nurse is called away for an emergency while conversing with a client who is concerned about his medical diagnosis. The nurse returns to the client promptly, as promised. Which of the following ethical principles is the nurse demonstrating?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Beneficence
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fidelity. Fidelity in nursing ethics involves keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, demonstrating reliability and trustworthiness. In this scenario, the nurse is exemplifying fidelity by returning promptly to the client as promised. Choice B, Autonomy, refers to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, not relevant in this situation. Choice C, Beneficence, involves the duty to act in the best interest of the patient, which is not the primary focus here. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equity in the distribution of healthcare resources, not applicable to the nurse's actions in this case.

5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

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