Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

2. A 16-year-old client is admitted to a psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of attempted suicide. The nurse is aware that the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents is

• A. Progressive failure to adapt
• B. Feelings of anger or hostility
• C. Reunion wish or fantasy
• D. Feelings of alienation or isolation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings of alienation or isolation are common triggers for suicidal behavior in adolescents. This sense of being disconnected or isolated from others can lead to despair and hopelessness, increasing the risk of suicidal ideation. Choices A, B, and C are less commonly associated with suicide in adolescents. Progressive failure to adapt may contribute to stress, but it is not typically the primary cause of suicide. Feelings of anger or hostility, while negative emotions, do not always lead to suicidal behavior in adolescents. Reunion wish or fantasy is not a recognized primary cause of suicide in this age group.

3. The process by which an individual gains knowledge and skills to improve their health and well-being is known as:

• A. Health literacy
• B. Health education
• C. Health promotion
• D. Health behavior

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Health education. Health education is the process through which individuals acquire knowledge and skills to enhance their health and well-being. Health literacy (choice A) refers to the ability to understand and use health information, but it is not the same as the process of gaining knowledge and skills. Health promotion (choice C) involves advocating for health and implementing interventions to improve health outcomes, rather than the individual learning process. Health behavior (choice D) pertains to the actions individuals take regarding their health, not specifically the process of gaining knowledge and skills.

4. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse’s initial response should be to

• A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations
• B. Introduce oneself and accompany the client to their room
• C. Take the client to the day room and introduce them to the other clients
• D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client’s vital signs and complete the admission search

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where a client is trembling and fearful upon admission to a psychiatric unit, it is essential to prioritize building trust and reducing anxiety. By introducing oneself and accompanying the client to their room, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide a sense of security, and address the client's immediate emotional needs. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate initial responses as they do not directly address the client's emotional state or focus on establishing a supportive relationship.

5. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

• A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
• B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
• C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
• D. Developmental delays in children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

Similar Questions