HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?
- A. Binge eating disorder
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia
- D. Purge syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.
2. A Hispanic client confides in the nurse that she is concerned that staff may give her newborn the 'evil eye.' The nurse should communicate to other personnel that the appropriate approach is to
- A. Touch the baby after looking at him
- B. Talk very slowly while speaking to him
- C. Avoid touching the child
- D. Look only at the parents
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In some Hispanic cultures, touching the baby after looking at them is believed to prevent the 'evil eye.' Respecting this cultural belief can help build trust and comfort with the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific cultural concern raised by the client. Talking slowly or avoiding touching the child does not relate to the belief in the 'evil eye.' Similarly, focusing only on the parents does not address the client's worry about the newborn receiving the 'evil eye.'
3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Low serum albumin
- B. High serum cholesterol
- C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
- D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.
4. The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?
- A. An appointed board oversees any administrative decisions
- B. Nursing departments share responsibility for client outcomes
- C. Staff groups are appointed to discuss nursing practice and client education issues
- D. Non-nurse managers supervise nursing staff in groups of units
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.
5. A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?
- A. Hot dog, carrot sticks, gelatin, milk
- B. Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk
- C. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, chips, pudding, milk
- D. Baked chicken, applesauce, cookie, milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk,' is the correct answer. After cleft palate repair, it is essential to provide soft and blenderized foods to prevent trauma to the surgical site and promote proper healing. Choices A, C, and D contain foods that may be difficult for the child to consume comfortably and safely after a cleft palate surgical repair. A hot dog, carrot sticks, chips, and hard cookies could potentially cause injury or discomfort to the surgical area. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich might be too difficult to swallow or may stick to the surgical site. Baked chicken could be too challenging to chew. Therefore, the best choice for an appropriate meal post cleft palate repair is soft, blenderized foods like soup, along with other soft options like ice cream and milk.
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