Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

2. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Lethargy
• C. Irritability
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.

3. Care provided by specialists in health facilities such as medical centers, regional, and provincial hospitals falls under which level of care?

• A. Secondary level care
• B. Primary care
• C. Tertiary care
• D. Intermediate care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tertiary care is the correct answer because it involves specialized care provided by medical centers and regional or provincial hospitals. Primary care (Choice B) refers to basic healthcare services usually delivered by general practitioners, nurses, and other healthcare professionals. Secondary care (Choice A) involves specialized services provided by medical specialists and other health professionals who generally do not have first contact with patients. Intermediate care (Choice D) is not a recognized level of care in the typical healthcare system hierarchy; it may cause confusion as it's not a standard term used to describe levels of care.

4. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

5. While caring for a client with infective endocarditis, the nurse must be alert for signs of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following assessment findings suggests this complication?

• A. Positive Homan's sign
• B. Fever and chills
• C. Dyspnea and cough
• D. Sensory impairment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dyspnea and cough.' Pulmonary embolism often presents with a sudden onset of dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and cough, which are due to the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Positive Homan's sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, fever and chills are nonspecific symptoms commonly seen in infective endocarditis, and sensory impairment is not typically indicative of pulmonary embolism.

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