Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

2. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.

3. The increasing number of people who must learn to live with chronic illness in the community implies the need for the PHN to plan and implement a program on:

• A. communicable disease control
• B. health education
• C. child survival
• D. environmental education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: health education. Health education is crucial for individuals dealing with chronic illnesses as it helps them learn how to manage their conditions effectively. Communicable disease control (choice A) focuses on preventing the spread of infectious diseases, which is not directly related to managing chronic conditions. Child survival (choice C) pertains to initiatives aimed at reducing child mortality rates, which is not directly related to addressing chronic illnesses. Environmental education (choice D) involves raising awareness about environmental issues, which is also not directly related to helping individuals live with chronic illnesses.

4. In evaluating your client's level of wellness, which of the following indicators can you see?

• A. Appropriate nutritional level
• B. Sense of personal security
• C. Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations
• D. Maladaptations to one's environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating a client's level of wellness, indicators such as appropriate nutritional level, sense of personal security, and acceptance of oneself and one's limitations are crucial. Option C, 'Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations,' directly relates to mental wellness and self-awareness, making it a key indicator of overall well-being. Options A, B, and D are not as directly tied to the psychological and emotional aspects of wellness, making them less relevant indicators in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

5. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

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