the nurse has identified what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarct
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

2. Which statement specifically describes occupational health nursing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Occupational health nursing involves all aspects mentioned in the statements: prevention, recognition, treatment of injury and illness, application of nursing principles in conserving workers' health, and the requirement of special skills in health, education, and counseling. Choice A focuses on prevention, recognition, and treatment but does not encompass all aspects of occupational health nursing. Choice C only mentions the application of nursing principles without including prevention and treatment. Choice D specifically highlights the need for special skills but does not cover all the aspects of occupational health nursing.

3. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

4. When caring for premature newborns in an intensive care setting, a nurse carefully monitors oxygen concentration. What is the most common complication of this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Retinopathy of prematurity is the most common complication in premature infants exposed to high concentrations of oxygen. This condition leads to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina, which can potentially result in blindness if not managed promptly. Intraventricular hemorrhage, though a significant concern in premature infants, is not directly related to oxygen therapy. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is primarily associated with mechanical ventilation and oxygen exposure over time, not specifically with oxygen concentration monitoring. Necrotizing enterocolitis is more linked to gastrointestinal issues and is not the most common complication of oxygen therapy in premature newborns.

5. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.

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