a client is admitted for copd which finding would require the nurses immediate attention
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Questions

1. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

2. Which of the following would be the best strategy for the nurse to use when teaching insulin injection techniques to a newly diagnosed client with diabetes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best strategy for the nurse to use when teaching insulin injection techniques to a newly diagnosed client with diabetes is to observe a return demonstration. This method ensures that the client can correctly perform the technique. Providing written pre and post tests (choice A) may assess knowledge but not application. Asking questions during practice (choice B) may help with understanding but not necessarily with the actual performance. Allowing another diabetic to assist (choice C) may provide peer support but does not guarantee correct technique demonstration.

3. The nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following should the nurse focus on first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, smoking cessation. Smoking is a major and modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease. It is often the highest priority in cardiac risk reduction because stopping smoking has immediate and long-term benefits for heart health. Choices A, B, and C are also important in reducing cardiac risk factors, but smoking cessation takes precedence due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

4. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

5. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.

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