Nursing Elites

1. Which presentation of an infectious disease is acquired through an indirect transmission?

• A. Syphilis contracted from a sexual partner.
• B. Measles resulting from a daycare center outbreak.
• C. Malaria following exposure in a mosquito-infested area.
• D. Nosocomial influenza spreading rapidly in a long-term care center.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Malaria is transmitted indirectly through mosquito bites. Choice A is incorrect as syphilis is acquired through direct contact with an infected sexual partner. Choice B is incorrect as measles can be transmitted through respiratory droplets in close contact settings like daycare centers. Choice D is incorrect as nosocomial influenza spreads within healthcare facilities through direct contact or droplets.

2. The delivery of basic health services was decentralized to the local government units. The legal basis for this is embodied in:

• A. RA 7035
• B. EO 119
• C. RA 7160
• D. PD 999

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, RA 7160. This law, also known as the Local Government Code, decentralizes health services to local government units. RA 7035 is not the legal basis for decentralizing basic health services. EO 119 and PD 999 are also not the correct legal bases for the decentralization of health services.

3. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

4. The nurse is assessing a newborn the day after birth. A high-pitched cry, irritability, and lack of interest in feeding are noted. The mother signed her own discharge against medical advice. What intervention is appropriate nursing care?

• A. Reduce the environmental stimuli
• B. Offer formula every 2 hours
• C. Talk to the newborn while feeding
• D. Rock the baby frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to reduce the environmental stimuli. In this scenario, the newborn is displaying signs of overstimulation and distress, which can be exacerbated by environmental factors. Offering formula every 2 hours (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of overstimulation. Talking to the newborn while feeding (Choice C) and rocking the baby frequently (Choice D) may further stimulate the newborn, which is not appropriate in this case.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating the health status of a 16-year-old client with a history of Type 1 diabetes. Which laboratory test would provide the most accurate information about long-term blood glucose control?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin
• C. Urine ketones
• D. Serum insulin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). Glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information about blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test measures the average blood sugar levels during this period, offering a more comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control. Choice A, blood glucose level, reflects the blood sugar concentration at the time of testing and may fluctuate throughout the day. Choice C, urine ketones, indicates the presence of ketones and is more relevant for assessing acute complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D, serum insulin level, evaluates insulin production and is not a direct indicator of long-term blood glucose control in diabetes management.

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