HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. When assisting a family who fails to take action during a sick member despite suggestions, you will:
- A. explain the consequences of inaction
- B. identify the courses of action open to the family and the resources needed for each
- C. discuss the consequences of each course of action available
- D. influence the family to act on what you think is best for the situation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When helping a family decide on actions to take, it is essential to identify the courses of action available to them and the resources needed for each. This empowers the family to make informed decisions based on their specific situation. Explaining the consequences of inaction (Choice A) may be necessary but does not provide a range of options. Discussing the consequences of each course of action (Choice C) is important but does not actively guide the family on the available actions. Influencing the family (Choice D) to act based on personal judgment undermines their autonomy and may not lead to the best outcome.
2. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Quaternary prevention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.
3. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?
- A. Administration of cough suppressants
- B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
- C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
- D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.
4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?
- A. 13 to 18 years of age.
- B. 11 to 12 years of age.
- C. 18 to 24 months of age.
- D. 4 to 6 years of age.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.
5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Muscle spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.
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