Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is evaluating the health status of a 16-year-old client with a history of Type 1 diabetes. Which laboratory test would provide the most accurate information about long-term blood glucose control?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin
• C. Urine ketones
• D. Serum insulin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). Glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information about blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test measures the average blood sugar levels during this period, offering a more comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control. Choice A, blood glucose level, reflects the blood sugar concentration at the time of testing and may fluctuate throughout the day. Choice C, urine ketones, indicates the presence of ketones and is more relevant for assessing acute complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D, serum insulin level, evaluates insulin production and is not a direct indicator of long-term blood glucose control in diabetes management.

2. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse with expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, risk reduction, and adult learning principles.

• A. case manager
• B. health educator
• C. nurse consultant
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: health promotion specialist.' This title aligns with the described expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, and risk reduction. A health promotion specialist focuses on promoting health and preventing illnesses, which directly corresponds to the skills mentioned in the job description. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'case manager' typically focuses on coordinating patient care, 'health educator' specifically emphasizes educating individuals on health topics, and a 'nurse consultant' offers expert advice and support in the nursing field but may not specialize in health promotion and risk reduction as required in this job description.

3. When admitting a client with Parkinson's disease to the home healthcare service, which nursing diagnosis should have priority in planning care?

• A. Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.
• B. Ineffective coping related to depression and dysfunction due to disease progression.
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness.
• D. Fear related to constant possibility of experiencing seizures.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.' For a client with Parkinson's disease, impaired physical mobility is a priority nursing diagnosis because of the characteristic motor symptoms such as muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Addressing impaired physical mobility is crucial to enhance the client's quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a client with Parkinson's disease. Ineffective coping (Choice B) and fear of seizures (Choice D) may be concerns but are not the priority. Ineffective breathing pattern (Choice C) is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.

4. The nurse is caring for a child who has just returned from surgery following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Offer ice chips every 2 hours
• B. Place the child in a semi-Fowler's position
• C. Encourage the child to drink from a cup
• D. Observe swallowing patterns

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing swallowing patterns is crucial post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy to detect signs of bleeding. Offering ice chips instead of ice cream helps prevent throat irritation. Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position promotes airway patency and reduces the risk of aspiration. Encouraging the child to drink from a cup instead of a straw minimizes the risk of dislodging the surgical site.

5. A 23-year-old single client is in the 33rd week of her first pregnancy. She tells the nurse that she has everything ready for the baby and has made plans for the first weeks together at home. Which normal emotional reaction does the nurse recognize?

• A. Acceptance of the pregnancy
• B. Focus on fetal development
• C. Anticipation of the birth
• D. Ambivalence about pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Anticipation of the birth.' In the third trimester, it is common for expectant mothers to feel excited and prepared for the upcoming birth of their baby. This includes making plans for the baby's arrival and the early days at home. Choice A, 'Acceptance of the pregnancy,' may occur earlier in the pregnancy and does not specifically relate to the third trimester. Choice B, 'Focus on fetal development,' is more common in the earlier stages of pregnancy when the mother may be more concerned with the baby's growth and milestones. Choice D, 'Ambivalence about pregnancy,' suggests conflicting feelings which are less likely in this scenario where the client expresses readiness and plans for the baby's arrival.

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