Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

2. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?

• A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
• B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
• C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
• D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.

3. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

4. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?

• A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
• B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
• C. Intense thirst and hunger
• D. Painful hematoma on thigh

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.

5. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is experiencing ascites. The nurse should implement which of the following interventions?

• A. Restrict fluid intake
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Encourage high-protein diet
• D. Administer diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Ascites, the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity, is a common complication of cirrhosis. Diuretics are the primary intervention to manage ascites by promoting the excretion of excess fluid from the body, thus reducing abdominal swelling. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) would not be appropriate as it may lead to dehydration. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is contraindicated as it can worsen fluid retention. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice C) is not directly related to managing ascites.

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