HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. In a well-child clinic, the nurse examines many children daily. Which of the following toddlers requires further follow-up?
- A. A 13-month-old who is unable to walk
- B. A 20-month-old who is only using 2 and 3 word sentences
- C. A 24-month-old who cries during examination
- D. A 30-month-old who is only drinking from a sip cup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a 30-month-old should have developed the skill to drink from a regular cup by this age. Drinking from a sip cup at this stage may indicate a delay in development. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning as they can be within the range of normal development. A 13-month-old not walking yet, a 20-month-old using 2 and 3 word sentences, and a 24-month-old crying during examination are all behaviors that can fall within the spectrum of typical development for their respective ages.
2. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about the cognitive development at this age?
- A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas
- B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts
- C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective
- D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct answer: At the age of 10, children are in the stage of concrete operational thought, where they can think logically and organize facts. Choice A is incorrect as simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as while children at this age are developing perspective-taking skills, their interpretations are not solely limited to their own perspective. Choice D is incorrect as while previous experiences influence their thinking, the ability to think logically and organize facts is more prominent in this stage of cognitive development.
3. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
- B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
- C. A significant decrease in appetite
- D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.
4. The nurse is planning a nutrition class for a group of high school students emphasizing the goals for nutrition from Healthy People 2020. Which meal selection provides the best choices in meeting these goals?
- A. pasta with cheese sauce, garlic butter bread, and vegetable juice drink
- B. a 6-oz pork chop, creamed peas, cheese sauce on potatoes, coffee
- C. vegetable lasagna, lettuce salad, a whole wheat roll, 8 oz of 2% milk
- D. bacon, lettuce, tomato sandwich, whole grain chips, 8 oz. of whole milk
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because vegetable lasagna, lettuce salad, and a whole wheat roll with 2% milk align with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020. These choices provide a balanced meal with vegetables, whole grains, and dairy, promoting a healthier dietary pattern. Choices A, B, and D do not offer as comprehensive a selection of food groups or as healthy options as choice C, making them less aligned with the nutrition goals of Healthy People 2020.
5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?
- A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
- B. Hematocrit of 55%
- C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
- D. Positive Coombs test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.
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