Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. A 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children.
• B. A 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing.
• C. A 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes.
• D. A 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

2. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

3. The nurse is evaluating the growth and development of a toddler with AIDS. The nurse would anticipate finding that the child has

• A. Achieved developmental milestones at an erratic rate
• B. Delay in musculoskeletal development
• C. Displayed difficulty with speech development
• D. Delay in achievement of most developmental milestones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children with AIDS often experience delays in achieving developmental milestones, affecting their overall growth and development. This delay can impact various areas of development, not limited to a specific aspect like musculoskeletal or speech development. While some children may achieve milestones at varying rates (choice A), the general trend is a delay in multiple milestones (choice D). Musculoskeletal development (choice B) and speech development (choice C) may be affected but are not as comprehensive as the delay in most developmental milestones.

4. When caring for premature newborns in an intensive care setting, a nurse carefully monitors oxygen concentration. What is the most common complication of this therapy?

• A. Intraventricular hemorrhage
• B. Retinopathy of prematurity
• C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
• D. Necrotizing enterocolitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Retinopathy of prematurity is the most common complication in premature infants exposed to high concentrations of oxygen. This condition leads to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina, which can potentially result in blindness if not managed promptly. Intraventricular hemorrhage, though a significant concern in premature infants, is not directly related to oxygen therapy. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is primarily associated with mechanical ventilation and oxygen exposure over time, not specifically with oxygen concentration monitoring. Necrotizing enterocolitis is more linked to gastrointestinal issues and is not the most common complication of oxygen therapy in premature newborns.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.

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