Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. A 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children.
• B. A 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing.
• C. A 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes.
• D. A 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

2. Which of the following patients should the home care nurse assess first?

• A. A 65-year-old male with known COPD and difficulty breathing after climbing a flight of stairs.
• B. A 78-year-old with CHF who has gained 4 lbs according to her tele-monitoring.
• C. A 50-year-old with bilateral leg swelling and difficulty walking.
• D. A 60-year-old with lower back pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A patient with known COPD and difficulty breathing after physical exertion like climbing stairs requires immediate assessment by the nurse. This could indicate a potential exacerbation of COPD, which needs prompt intervention to prevent respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D describe important patient situations that also require attention, but the urgency is higher with a COPD patient experiencing difficulty breathing.

3. What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding immediately after birth?

• A. Uterine atony
• B. Genital lacerations
• C. Abnormal clotting mechanism
• D. Endometritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal bleeding immediately after birth is most often due to uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract following delivery. This results in inadequate compression of blood vessels at the placental site, leading to hemorrhage. Genital lacerations and abnormal clotting mechanisms can also cause bleeding but are less common immediately after birth compared to uterine atony. Endometritis, inflammation of the lining of the uterus, usually presents with symptoms like fever and pelvic pain rather than immediate postpartum bleeding.

4. Which of the following measures the proportion of the population that exhibits a particular disease at a particular time and includes both new and old cases?

• A. proportionate morbidity rate
• B. case fatality rate
• C. incidence ratio
• D. prevalence ratio

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prevalence ratio. Prevalence ratio measures the proportion of the population with a particular disease at a specific time, including both new and existing cases. Choice A, proportionate morbidity rate, is not a standard term and might confuse students. Choice B, case fatality rate, measures the proportion of deaths from a specific disease compared to the total number of cases but does not include both new and old cases. Choice C, incidence ratio, measures the rate of new cases of a disease in a specific population over a defined period, not considering existing cases.

5. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

• A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
• B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
• C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
• D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

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