Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. A 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children.
• B. A 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing.
• C. A 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes.
• D. A 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

2. The nurse is assessing a newborn the day after birth. A high-pitched cry, irritability, and lack of interest in feeding are noted. The mother signed her own discharge against medical advice. What intervention is appropriate nursing care?

• A. Reduce the environmental stimuli
• B. Offer formula every 2 hours
• C. Talk to the newborn while feeding
• D. Rock the baby frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to reduce the environmental stimuli. In this scenario, the newborn is displaying signs of overstimulation and distress, which can be exacerbated by environmental factors. Offering formula every 2 hours (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of overstimulation. Talking to the newborn while feeding (Choice C) and rocking the baby frequently (Choice D) may further stimulate the newborn, which is not appropriate in this case.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

4. A senior high school student, whose immunization status is current, asks the school nurse which immunizations will be included in the precollege physical. Which vaccine should the nurse tell the student to expect to receive?

• A. Hepatitis C (HepC)
• B. Influenza type B (HIB)
• C. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
• D. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR). MMR vaccine is commonly included in precollege physicals to ensure students are protected against these diseases. Choice A, Hepatitis C (HepC), is incorrect as the standard vaccine for hepatitis given in childhood is Hepatitis B. Choice B, Influenza type B (HIB), is not typically administered during precollege physicals but is recommended for younger children. Choice D, Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP), is usually given in early childhood and not typically repeated during precollege physicals.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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