Nursing Elites

1. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. A 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children.
• B. A 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing.
• C. A 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes.
• D. A 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

2. An example of individual influences on health status would be:

• A. Cigarette smoking
• B. A parent with adult-onset diabetes
• C. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D' because all the listed factors - cigarette smoking, a parent with adult-onset diabetes, and exposure to toxic substances in the workplace - can individually influence a person's health status. Cigarette smoking directly impacts health by increasing the risk of various diseases. Having a parent with adult-onset diabetes can also influence one's health due to genetic predisposition and lifestyle factors. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace can lead to health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not mutually exclusive but rather represent different aspects of individual influences on health status, making 'D' the most comprehensive and accurate answer.

3. The home health nursing director is conducting an educational program for registered nurses and practical nurses about Medicare reimbursement. To obtain payment for Medicare services, what must be included in the client's record?

• A. A prescription from the healthcare provider for each visit made.
• B. Documentation of a skilled care service provided during the visit.
• C. A copy of the client's health history and social security card.
• D. A record of the preventative healthcare services provided during the visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Documentation of skilled care services is required for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare reimbursement is based on the provision of skilled care services, not on prescriptions or preventative healthcare services. Including a copy of the client's health history and social security card is not a requirement for Medicare reimbursement.

4. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

5. The nurse is assessing a newborn the day after birth. A high-pitched cry, irritability, and lack of interest in feeding are noted. The mother signed her own discharge against medical advice. What intervention is appropriate nursing care?

• A. Reduce the environmental stimuli
• B. Offer formula every 2 hours
• C. Talk to the newborn while feeding
• D. Rock the baby frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to reduce the environmental stimuli. In this scenario, the newborn is displaying signs of overstimulation and distress, which can be exacerbated by environmental factors. Offering formula every 2 hours (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of overstimulation. Talking to the newborn while feeding (Choice C) and rocking the baby frequently (Choice D) may further stimulate the newborn, which is not appropriate in this case.

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