HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Questions
1. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?
- A. A 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children.
- B. A 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing.
- C. A 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes.
- D. A 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.
2. A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding the transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?
- A. Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host.
- B. Mature anthrax bacteria live dormant on inanimate objects.
- C. Spores cannot survive for extended periods outside of a living host.
- D. Anthrax is transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct information that the nurse should provide to the group is that anthrax infection occurs when spores enter a host. Choice B is incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects. Choice C is incorrect because anthrax spores can survive for extended periods outside of a living host. Choice D is incorrect because anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person; it is acquired through spores entering a host.
3. A client was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. When auscultating the client's breath sounds, the nurse hears inspiratory crackles in the right base. Temperature is 102.3 degrees Fahrenheit orally. What finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Flushed skin
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Mental confusion
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.
4. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
- B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
- C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
- D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.
5. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to:
- A. Increase acid secretion
- B. Reduce acid secretion
- C. Promote gastric emptying
- D. Remove the ulcerated area
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Reduce acid secretion." Vagotomy is performed to reduce acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve, which stimulates acid production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A vagotomy does not increase acid secretion, promote gastric emptying, or remove the ulcerated area. It specifically aims to decrease acid production to help in the healing of peptic ulcers.
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