which client has the greatest risk for developing community acquired pneumonia
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Community Health HESI Questions

1. Which individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes. This individual has the highest risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors such as homelessness, alcoholism, and smoking, which weaken the immune system and make them more susceptible to respiratory infections. Choice A is incorrect as working with underprivileged children, while potentially exposing the individual to various illnesses, does not directly increase the risk of pneumonia. Choice B is less likely as exercise-induced wheezing may suggest asthma but does not directly correlate with pneumonia risk. Choice D, an aerobics instructor who eats only vegetables and skips meals, does not have the same level of risk factors for pneumonia as the homeless person in choice C.

2. The RN at a migrant health center notes an increased incidence of dermatitis in seasonal farm workers at a local fruit farm. In response to this finding, what is the most important information for the RN to obtain as part of the community assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Availability of clean fresh water to wash hands after work. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with clean water, is crucial in preventing dermatitis, especially in farm workers who are exposed to potential irritants in their work environment. While proper housing (choice B), access to health care services (choice C), and access to transportation (choice D) are important factors in overall community health, they are not directly linked to preventing dermatitis in this scenario.

3. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

4. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

5. The Healthy People project is designed to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Healthy People project is designed to follow health indicators such as activity, substance use, mental health, and environmental issues to improve public health outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the project focuses on public health indicators rather than insurance liabilities. Choice B is incorrect as the project actually acknowledges the significant impact of social factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because one of the main goals of the Healthy People project is to identify and address disparities in access to healthcare, not to demonstrate that access is adequate for all populations.

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