Nursing Elites

1. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is reporting pain despite taking analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to determine the intensity of the client’s pain?

• A. Ask the client what precipitates the pain.
• B. Question the client about the location of the pain.
• C. Offer the client a pain scale to measure their pain.
• D. Use open-ended questions to identify the client’s pain sensations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Offering the client a pain scale is the most appropriate action to determine the intensity of the client’s pain. Pain scales help quantify the intensity of pain, providing a standardized way to assess and compare pain levels. Asking about precipitating factors (choice A) may help identify triggers but does not directly measure pain intensity. Questioning about the location of pain (choice B) helps with localization but not with quantifying intensity. Using open-ended questions (choice D) may provide insights into the quality and experience of pain but does not provide a standardized measure of intensity.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance. What intervention will the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage dairy alternatives.
• B. Monitor intake of vitamin D.
• C. Increase intake of caffeinated drinks.
• D. Assist the patient with daily activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance is to monitor their intake of vitamin D. Since the patient has lactose intolerance, encouraging dairy alternatives (Choice A) would not be appropriate. Increasing intake of caffeinated drinks (Choice C) is not beneficial for managing osteoporosis and may even have negative effects on bone health. Assisting the patient with daily activities (Choice D) is a general nursing intervention that may not directly address the specific needs related to osteoporosis and lactose intolerance.

4. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

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