HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will
- A. Improve the quality of care
- B. Decrease staff turnover
- C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
- D. Improve team morale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.
2. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action:
- A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
- B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
- C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
- D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing a client in seclusion without proper justification and documentation can lead to charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint, regardless of the client's compliance. This legal issue arises from the potential violation of the client's rights and must be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as the situation does not involve assault and battery. Choice C is incorrect as past violence alone does not justify seclusion without immediate risk. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should be used based on individual risk and necessity, not solely for maintaining the therapeutic milieu.
3. Which of the following manifestations confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students?
- A. Scratching the head more than usual
- B. Flakes evident on a student's shoulders
- C. Oval pattern occipital hair loss
- D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair shaft are nits, which are a definitive sign of pediculosis capitis (head lice). A: Scratching the head more than usual is a common symptom but not confirmatory of head lice infestation. B: Flakes evident on a student's shoulders may indicate dandruff or dry scalp, not necessarily head lice. C: Oval pattern occipital hair loss is not a typical manifestation of pediculosis capitis.
4. A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain a perception from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges
- B. Request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution of the situation
- C. Encourage the client to speak with her husband regarding his disruptive behavior
- D. Communicate the client's wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention is to communicate the client's wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team. This action respects the client's autonomy and maintains her comfort by ensuring that her desires regarding visitation and support are known and upheld. Obtaining a perception from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges (Choice A) may not fully consider the client's preferences. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee (Choice B) may be premature and could delay prompt resolution of the issue. Encouraging the client to speak with her husband (Choice C) may not be appropriate, as the husband's demands are disrupting the client's care and comfort, and the client may not feel safe or comfortable doing so.
5. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
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