Nursing Elites

1. The patient has undergone surgery for a broken leg and has a cast in place. What should the nurse do to prevent skin impairment?

• A. Assess surfaces exposed to the edges of the cast for pressure areas.
• B. Keep the patient's blood pressure low to prevent overperfusion of tissue.
• C. Allow turning in bed to prevent complications.
• D. Encourage the patient's dietary intake to maintain hydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent skin impairment in a patient with a cast, the nurse should assess surfaces exposed to the edges of the cast for pressure areas. This is important to prevent pressure ulcers or skin breakdown. Keeping the patient's blood pressure low (Choice B) is not directly related to preventing skin impairment in this scenario. Allowing turning in bed (Choice C) is essential for preventing complications like pressure ulcers and is not contraindicated. Encouraging the patient's dietary intake (Choice D) to maintain hydration is not directly related to preventing skin impairment associated with a cast.

2. A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be:

• A. Absent
• B. Hyperactive
• C. Normal
• D. Hypoactive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In paralytic ileus, bowel sounds are typically absent or significantly reduced due to decreased motility of the intestines. This absence of bowel sounds is a key characteristic used in diagnosing paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not expected in this condition as there is a lack of normal peristalsis. Normal bowel sounds would not be present in paralytic ileus, and hypoactive bowel sounds, which indicate decreased bowel motility, are more commonly associated with conditions like postoperative ileus or constipation, rather than paralytic ileus.

3. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

• A. Dystonia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

5. The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client’s circulation is checked every hour.
• B. Document the reason for the restraints every 4 hours.
• C. Provide range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours.
• D. Release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.

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