Nursing Elites

1. A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client’s bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Open the windows in the client’s room to allow smoke to escape.
• B. Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire.
• C. Remove all electrical equipment from the client’s room.
• D. Place wet towels along the base of the door to the client’s room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is unable to clear secretions by coughing. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Provide humidified oxygen via tracheostomy collar.
• C. Suction the tracheostomy tube as needed.
• D. Change the tracheostomy dressing daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy tube as needed is the most appropriate action in this scenario. When a client with a tracheostomy is unable to clear secretions by coughing, suctioning helps remove the excess secretions from the airway, ensuring proper breathing. Encouraging deep breaths (Choice A) may not effectively address the immediate need to clear secretions. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the issue of clearing secretions. Changing the tracheostomy dressing daily (Choice D) is important for maintaining cleanliness but is not the priority when the client is unable to clear secretions.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

• A. Early decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Accelerations
• D. Moderate variability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

• A. purulent exudate
• B. warmth
• C. skin blanching
• D. bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream properly. Skin blanching, swelling, and coolness at the IV site are typical signs of infiltration. Purulent exudate (choice A) is associated with infection, warmth (choice B) can indicate phlebitis, and bleeding (choice D) may occur if the IV catheter punctures a blood vessel.

5. Which nutritional assessment data should be collected to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?

• A. Height in inches or centimeters.
• B. Weight in kilograms or pounds.
• C. Triceps skinfold thickness.
• D. Upper arm circumference.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper arm circumference.' Upper arm circumference is a better indicator of total muscle mass in adolescents compared to height, weight, or triceps skinfold thickness. Triceps skinfold thickness primarily reflects subcutaneous fat, while weight and height are not specific to muscle mass. Upper arm circumference directly measures the muscle mass in the upper arm and can provide a more accurate assessment in this context. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect total muscle mass in adolescents.

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