Nursing Elites

1. A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client’s bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Open the windows in the client’s room to allow smoke to escape.
• B. Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire.
• C. Remove all electrical equipment from the client’s room.
• D. Place wet towels along the base of the door to the client’s room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.

2. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Impaired balance
• B. Hemiplegia
• C. Muscle sprain
• D. Lower extremity paralysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen due to better absorption and reduced risk of injury to underlying structures. The deltoid muscle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin due to the potential risk of injury to underlying structures. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more appropriate for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections.

4. A healthcare professional is planning to assess the abdomen of a client who reports feeling bloated for several weeks. Which of the following methods of assessment should the healthcare professional use first?

• A. Inspection
• B. Palpation
• C. Auscultation
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inspection is the initial step in abdominal assessment as it allows the healthcare professional to visually observe any abnormalities or signs of bloating. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are subsequent assessment techniques that follow inspection. Palpation involves feeling for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement; auscultation is listening for bowel sounds; and percussion is used to assess the density of underlying tissues or detect the presence of fluid or air in the abdomen. In the context of a client reporting bloating, the first step should be visual inspection to gather initial information. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion come after inspection to provide a more comprehensive assessment.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

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