the nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy which finding should the lpnlvn report to the healthcare provider immediately
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

2. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperglycemia is the correct complication to monitor for in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content of the solution. TPN solutions are rich in glucose, so monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is less common with TPN due to the high glucose content, making hyperglycemia a more significant concern. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperkalemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with TPN administration, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

3. A nurse reviews an immobilized patient's laboratory results and discovers hypercalcemia. Which condition will the nurse monitor for most closely in this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal stones. Renal calculi are calcium stones that can form in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters. Immobilized patients, who have hypercalcemia, are at increased risk for developing renal stones. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of renal stones is crucial in this patient population. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although they are potential complications in immobilized patients, they are not directly associated with hypercalcemia and do not match the scenario described in the question.

4. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being educated about lifestyle changes. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with COPD should limit alcohol intake, not just to weekends, to effectively manage their condition. Excessive alcohol consumption can worsen respiratory symptoms and interfere with medications. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate and beneficial for clients with COPD. Salt intake reduction helps in managing fluid retention and blood pressure. Regular exercise improves lung function and overall health. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for individuals with COPD as hypertension is a common comorbidity.

5. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.

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