HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Questions
1. What is the measure of the number of existing cases of a disease in a specific population at a given time?
- A. Incidence
- B. Prevalence
- C. Mortality rate
- D. Morbidity rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prevalence is the correct answer as it refers to the number of existing cases of a disease in a specific population at a given time. Incidence, on the other hand, refers to the number of new cases of a disease in a defined population over a specific period. Mortality rate is the measure of the number of deaths in a particular population due to a specific cause, while morbidity rate is the frequency of a disease in a specific population.
2. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?
- A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
- B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
- C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
- D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.
3. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?
- A. performing needs assessment
- B. listing supervisory activities
- C. identifying the training needs
- D. formulating objectives for supervision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.
4. What is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding immediately after birth?
- A. Uterine atony
- B. Genital lacerations
- C. Abnormal clotting mechanism
- D. Endometritis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding immediately after birth is most often due to uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract following delivery. This results in inadequate compression of blood vessels at the placental site, leading to hemorrhage. Genital lacerations and abnormal clotting mechanisms can also cause bleeding but are less common immediately after birth compared to uterine atony. Endometritis, inflammation of the lining of the uterus, usually presents with symptoms like fever and pelvic pain rather than immediate postpartum bleeding.
5. Which of the following characteristics apply to 2 to 3-year-old children?
- A. Prefers to feed themselves
- B. Eats very small nutritious meals a day rather than 3 large meals
- C. Can speak in longer sentences
- D. Can use a toothbrush properly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. During the age of 2 to 3 years old, children tend to eat very small, nutritious meals throughout the day rather than having three large meals. This behavior is typical for this age group as their appetites fluctuate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while children of this age may start to prefer feeding themselves and begin using a toothbrush with assistance, they typically do not speak in longer sentences at this stage.
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