which client has the highest risk for developing community acquired pneumonia
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Community Health HESI Test Bank

1. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because homeless individuals who are alcoholics and smoke have a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors like poor living conditions, compromised immune systems, and increased exposure to infections. Choice A is less likely as the teacher's profession, while involving contact with children, may not pose as high a risk as the factors in choice C. Choice B may have respiratory issues but does not have the same risk factors as choice C. Choice D, the aerobics instructor, may have a healthy lifestyle but skipping meals and a restrictive diet do not directly correlate with a higher risk of pneumonia compared to the risk factors in choice C.

2. A female client diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV 2) complains of dysuria, dyspareunia, leukorrhea, and lesions on the labia and perianal skin. A primary nursing action with the focus of comfort should be to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest 3 to 4 warm sitz baths per day. Warm sitz baths can soothe the irritated genital area, reduce pain, and promote healing of the lesions associated with genital herpes. Cleansing the genitalia with soap and water or spraying warm water over the genitalia after urination may further irritate the lesions. Applying heat or cold to lesions as desired may not provide the same level of comfort and healing as warm sitz baths.

3. The client with acute hypocalcemia is admitted to the unit. Nursing action should include:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with acute hypocalcemia is to implement seizure precautions. Hypocalcemia can lead to tetany and seizures due to neuromuscular irritability. Assessing for hypoglycemia (choice B) is not directly related to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for visual changes (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like hyperglycemia or retinal disorders. Observing for muscle weakness (choice D) is a common symptom of hypocalcemia but does not address the immediate risk of seizures, which is why implementing seizure precautions is the priority nursing action.

4. After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest indrawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse should:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest indrawing and stridor are signs of severe respiratory distress. In this situation, immediate referral is essential. Giving the first dose of antibiotics before referral can help initiate treatment, but urgent referral for further evaluation and management is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because simply changing the antibiotic without assessing the severity of the symptoms and providing urgent care is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as advising the mother to observe the child and continue antibiotics delays necessary intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition. Choice D is incorrect as observing the child at the center is not sufficient when signs of severe illness are present.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin (Epogen). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Erythropoietin can lead to hypertension as a side effect due to its stimulation of red blood cell production, which can increase blood viscosity. This can result in elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of erythropoietin. Hyperkalemia is more commonly associated with renal failure rather than erythropoietin use. Hypocalcemia is not a typical side effect of erythropoietin administration.

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