Nursing Elites

1. A 23-year-old single client is in the 33rd week of her first pregnancy. She tells the nurse that she has everything ready for the baby and has made plans for the first weeks together at home. Which normal emotional reaction does the nurse recognize?

• A. Acceptance of the pregnancy
• B. Focus on fetal development
• C. Anticipation of the birth
• D. Ambivalence about pregnancy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Anticipation of the birth.' In the third trimester, it is common for expectant mothers to feel excited and prepared for the upcoming birth of their baby. This includes making plans for the baby's arrival and the early days at home. Choice A, 'Acceptance of the pregnancy,' may occur earlier in the pregnancy and does not specifically relate to the third trimester. Choice B, 'Focus on fetal development,' is more common in the earlier stages of pregnancy when the mother may be more concerned with the baby's growth and milestones. Choice D, 'Ambivalence about pregnancy,' suggests conflicting feelings which are less likely in this scenario where the client expresses readiness and plans for the baby's arrival.

2. The RN is planning care at a team meeting for a 2-month-old child in bilateral leg casts for congenital clubfoot. Which of these suggestions by the PN should be considered the priority nursing goal following cast application?

• A. Infant will experience minimal pain
• B. Muscle spasms will be relieved
• C. Mobility will be managed as tolerated
• D. Tissue perfusion will be maintained

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following cast application for congenital clubfoot in a 2-month-old child, the priority nursing goal should be to maintain tissue perfusion. This is crucial to prevent complications like compartment syndrome and ensure proper healing. While managing pain, relieving muscle spasms, and promoting mobility are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring adequate tissue perfusion in this scenario.

3. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

4. As a community Health Nurse, you are a change agent. Which of the following roles must you play to succeed as a change agent?

• A. information provider
• B. information seeker
• C. motivator
• D. leader

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To succeed as a change agent, being an information seeker is crucial. While being an information provider, motivator, and leader are important roles, actively seeking information is fundamental to understanding the community's needs, concerns, and challenges before implementing effective changes. This active information seeking helps in making informed decisions and developing strategies that address the specific issues faced by the community. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are also important roles but may not be as fundamental as actively seeking information.

5. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

• A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
• B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
• C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

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