Nursing Elites

1. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

2. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Measles-mumps-rubella.
• B. Hepatitis B.
• C. Human papillomavirus.
• D. Pneumococcal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women as it helps prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine (choice A) is not directly related to the current situation of the client being pregnant. Human papillomavirus vaccine (choice C) is recommended for adolescents but is not specifically indicated in this case. Pneumococcal vaccine (choice D) is not a priority in this scenario compared to Hepatitis B, which is crucial for preventing vertical transmission.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with status epilepticus. The most important nursing assessment of this client is

• A. Intravenous fluid infusion
• B. Level of consciousness
• C. Pulse and respirations
• D. Extremities for injuries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In status epilepticus, the most crucial nursing assessment is the level of consciousness. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is vital as prolonged seizures can result in hypoxia, brain damage, and require immediate intervention. Pulse and respirations (choice C) are important assessments, but in status epilepticus, the priority is to monitor the client's neurological status. Checking intravenous fluid infusion (choice A) and extremities for injuries (choice D) are not the primary assessments needed in managing a client experiencing status epilepticus.

4. A client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Levothyroxine, used to treat hypothyroidism, can lead to increased metabolism, causing tachycardia as a side effect. Monitoring for tachycardia is essential to ensure the client's safety. Choices B, Hypotension, and C, Weight gain, are incorrect as levothyroxine is not typically associated with causing hypotension or weight gain. Choice D, Bradycardia, is also incorrect as levothyroxine-induced bradycardia is not a common side effect.

5. In planning the use of resources for secondary prevention in a community clinic serving migrant families, which activity should be the priority?

• A. Skin testing for tuberculosis.
• B. Glucose monitoring for diabetes.
• C. Blood work for cardiovascular disease.
• D. Height and weight for altered nutrition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Skin testing for tuberculosis. In a community clinic serving migrant families, tuberculosis is a significant health concern due to close living conditions and potential exposure during migration. Skin testing for tuberculosis is crucial for secondary prevention as it helps in early detection and prevention of the spread of the disease within the community. Choices B, C, and D are important health screenings but may not be the priority in this specific population where tuberculosis poses a higher risk.

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