Nursing Elites

1. The following are functions of the Provincial Nurse Supervisor except:

• A. interpreting policies, guidelines, and SDP to nursing and midwifery staff of the province
• B. assessing training needs and planning staff development programs for nursing and midwifery staff
• C. participating in planning, developing, and evaluating OJT for nurses and midwives conducted by the department
• D. collecting, consolidating, analyzing, and interpreting health records and reports and making recommendations as needed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Collecting, consolidating, analyzing, and interpreting health records is not a primary function of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor. The primary functions of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor include interpreting policies, guidelines, and SDP to nursing and midwifery staff, assessing training needs, planning staff development programs, and participating in planning, developing, and evaluating OJT for nurses and midwives. While health records may be accessed for specific purposes, the core responsibilities of a Provincial Nurse Supervisor focus on staff management and development rather than direct involvement in health record analysis.

2. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?

• A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
• B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
• C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
• D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.

3. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?

• A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
• B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
• C. Intense thirst and hunger
• D. Painful hematoma on thigh

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.

4. Tertiary prevention would best be described as:

• A. recovery from physical limitation and psychological regression
• B. health teaching and immunization
• C. rehabilitation of alcoholic and drug dependents
• D. preventing disability and maximum use of remaining capacity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tertiary prevention is the stage of prevention that aims at preventing disability and maximizing the use of remaining capacity. Choice A is more aligned with rehabilitation rather than tertiary prevention. Choice B refers to primary prevention by promoting health and preventing diseases. Choice C focuses on rehabilitation specific to alcohol and drug dependence, which is a form of secondary prevention, not tertiary prevention.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

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