Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following measures the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium?

• A. maternal mortality
• B. neonatal death rate
• C. fetal death rate
• D. infant mortality rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, maternal mortality. Maternal mortality specifically measures the risk of dying from pregnancy-related causes. Neonatal death rate, fetal death rate, and infant mortality rate focus on different populations and timeframes. Neonatal death rate refers to deaths within the first 28 days of life, fetal death rate measures stillbirths, and infant mortality rate includes deaths of infants under one year of age. Therefore, A is the most appropriate measure for assessing the risk of dying from causes related to pregnancy, childbirth, and puerperium.

2. A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?

• A. Hot dog, carrot sticks, gelatin, milk
• B. Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk
• C. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, chips, pudding, milk
• D. Baked chicken, applesauce, cookie, milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk,' is the correct answer. After cleft palate repair, it is essential to provide soft and blenderized foods to prevent trauma to the surgical site and promote proper healing. Choices A, C, and D contain foods that may be difficult for the child to consume comfortably and safely after a cleft palate surgical repair. A hot dog, carrot sticks, chips, and hard cookies could potentially cause injury or discomfort to the surgical area. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich might be too difficult to swallow or may stick to the surgical site. Baked chicken could be too challenging to chew. Therefore, the best choice for an appropriate meal post cleft palate repair is soft, blenderized foods like soup, along with other soft options like ice cream and milk.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.

4. What is an important basis in preparing the family health care plan?

• A. Needs and problems gathered and recognized by the nurse herself
• B. Data gathered from the health center
• C. Needs and problems as seen and accepted by the family
• D. Needs as expected by the midwife assigned in the area where the family resides

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In preparing a family health care plan, it is crucial to consider the needs and problems as perceived and accepted by the family members themselves. This ensures that the plan aligns with the family's beliefs, values, and preferences, leading to better acceptance and adherence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the active involvement and acceptance of the family in recognizing their needs and problems are essential for effective health care planning.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

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