HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. The female is caring for a male patient who is uncircumcised but not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities. The nurse is providing the patient with a partial bed bath. How should perineal care be performed for this patient?
- A. Should be postponed because it may cause embarrassment.
- B. Should be unnecessary because the patient is uncircumcised.
- C. Should be done by the patient.
- D. Should be done by the nurse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Perineal care should be encouraged to be done by the patient if they are capable of performing self-care. In this scenario, the patient is not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities, indicating that the patient can independently perform perineal care. Encouraging self-care promotes independence and maintains the patient's dignity. Postponing perineal care (Choice A) is incorrect because it is essential for hygiene. Choice B is incorrect as perineal care is necessary for all patients regardless of circumcision status. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is capable of performing the care independently, and promoting self-care is a priority in nursing practice.
2. A client appears upset about the IV catheter insertion but does not communicate it to the nurse after being informed about the prescribed IV fluids. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. Ignore the client’s discomfort
- B. Reassure the client without addressing concerns
- C. Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?
- D. Proceed with the procedure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to ask the client if there are any concerns about the procedure. By doing so, the nurse acknowledges the client's distress and opens up a dialogue to address any anxieties or misconceptions. Option A is incorrect as ignoring the client’s discomfort can lead to increased anxiety and potential harm. Option B is not ideal as reassuring the client without addressing specific concerns may not alleviate the client's distress. Option D is incorrect because proceeding with the procedure without addressing the client's unspoken concerns can further escalate the client's distress.
3. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?
- A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
- B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
- C. Following an angry outburst with family
- D. When the client is removed from the security room
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.
4. The nurse manager is reviewing medication documentation. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to include in teaching?
- A. Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.
- B. Avoid abbreviating medication names to prevent errors.
- C. Use generic names only for medications.
- D. Document the dosage, route of administration, and complete medication name.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.' When documenting medications, it is crucial to use the complete name to avoid confusion and errors. Abbreviating medication names (choice B) can lead to misinterpretation and errors in medication administration. Using generic names only for medications (choice C) may not provide enough specificity, leading to potential medication errors. While documenting the dosage and route of administration is important, it is also vital to include the complete medication name (choice D) for accurate record-keeping and to ensure clarity in medication administration.
5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- C. Measure the client's vital signs.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin sublingually. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is the priority action for a client with chest pain and a history of coronary artery disease. Nitroglycerin helps dilate the coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and providing rapid relief of chest pain. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG, measuring vital signs, and administering oxygen are important actions but should follow the administration of nitroglycerin in the management of chest pain in a client with coronary artery disease.
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