Nursing Elites

1. When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the LPN/LVN to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is in the

• A. Arms.
• B. Upper torso.
• C. Head.
• D. Feet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper torso.' In elderly individuals, the center of gravity tends to shift upwards towards the upper torso due to various factors such as changes in posture and muscle strength. Understanding this is crucial for safe ambulation as it helps in maintaining balance and stability. Choices A, 'Arms,' C, 'Head,' and D, 'Feet,' are incorrect. The center of gravity is not typically located in the arms, head, or feet. It is higher up in the body, specifically in the upper torso. Knowing the correct location of the center of gravity is essential for assisting elderly clients in ambulation effectively and preventing falls.

2. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?

• A. Pallor
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Jaundice
• D. Erythema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.

3. A patient's neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?

• A. Avoid the blood transfusion
• B. Donate autologous blood before the surgery
• C. Use a blood substitute
• D. Take antibiotics before the surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Donating autologous blood before surgery is an appropriate suggestion by the nurse. This process involves the patient donating their own blood before the surgery, which reduces the risk of infection from transfusions as the patient is receiving their own blood. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding the blood transfusion may not be feasible or safe in the context of expected blood loss during surgery. Choice C is not a common practice and may carry its own risks. Choice D is not directly related to reducing the risk of infection from a blood transfusion.

4. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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