Nursing Elites

1. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
• D. Decreased serum potassium levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports diarrhea and decreased urination for 4 days. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess the client's skin turgor?

• A. Grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back
• B. Pinch the skin on the back of the hand and observe for elasticity
• C. Assess the skin turgor on the abdomen by pinching the skin
• D. Check the skin turgor by pressing on the forearm and observing the rebound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess skin turgor, the nurse should grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back. This method is preferred for older adults and in cases of significant fluid imbalance. Option B is incorrect as assessing skin turgor on the back of the hand is not the standard assessment site for skin turgor. Option C is incorrect as the abdomen is not the typical area for assessing skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is a more accurate site. Option D is incorrect as pressing on the forearm is not the appropriate site for evaluating skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is the recommended location for this assessment.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.

4. The caregiver is teaching parents about accidental poisoning in children. Which point should be emphasized?

• A. Call the Poison Control Center as soon as the situation is identified
• B. Empty the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning
• C. Have the child move minimally if a toxic substance was inhaled
• D. Do not induce vomiting if the poison is a hydrocarbon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to emphasize emptying the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning. This action is crucial to prevent further ingestion of the poisonous substance. Choice A is incorrect because calling the Poison Control Center should be one of the first steps, not waiting until the situation is identified. Choice C is incorrect as moving the child may spread or exacerbate the effects of the toxic substance. Choice D is incorrect because inducing vomiting can be harmful if the poison is a hydrocarbon, as it may lead to aspiration.

5. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?

• A. Limiting fluids
• B. Client-controlled analgesia
• C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
• D. Performing passive range of motion exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.

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