Nursing Elites

1. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. "I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine."
• B. "I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago."
• C. "I flushed what I urinated at 7 a.m. and have saved all urine since."
• D. "I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

4. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

5. The nurse observes an UAP positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
• B. Ensure that the UAP has placed pillows effectively to protect the client
• C. Ask the UAP to use some pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position
• D. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using soft blankets to secure to the side rails provides better protection during a seizure as they are more secure and less likely to shift compared to pillows. This action helps prevent injury to the client by minimizing the risk of falling or hitting the side rails during a seizure. Choices B and C do not address the issue of using more secure materials. Choice D is inappropriate as it is important for the nurse to ensure the safety and well-being of the client by using the most appropriate protective measures.

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