HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client requires a 24-hour urine collection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine."
- B. "I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago."
- C. "I flushed what I urinated at 7 a.m. and have saved all urine since."
- D. "I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because for a 24-hour urine collection, the first void is discarded, and all subsequent urine should be saved. Choice A is incorrect because bowel movements do not contribute to a urine collection. Choice B indicates a single specimen rather than continuous collection over 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as it incorrectly suggests rushing the test by drinking excessively.
2. At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?
- A. Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
- B. Fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- C. Third intercostal space to the left of the sternum
- D. Fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.
3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Crackles in the lungs
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Hepatomegaly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.
4. A healthcare professional is planning to perform ear irrigation on an adult client with impacted cerumen. Which of the following should the professional plan to take?
- A. Wearing sterile gloves while performing irrigation
- B. Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation
- C. Using cool fluid to irrigate the ear canal
- D. Pulling the pinna downward during irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation is crucial as it helps facilitate drainage of the dislodged cerumen and any remaining irrigation solution. This position allows gravity to assist in the removal of the loosened debris. Wearing sterile gloves is a standard precaution in healthcare procedures to prevent infection but is not specific to ear irrigation. Using body-temperature water or a solution at a slightly warmer temperature is recommended to prevent vertigo and discomfort, so using cool fluid is incorrect. Pulling the pinna upward and backward, not downward, straightens the ear canal for adults to facilitate the irrigation process, making choice D incorrect.
5. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) preparing to obtain blood pressure with a regular size cuff for a client who is obese. Which of the following explanations should the nurse give the AP?
- A. Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.
- B. Using a cuff that is too large will result in an inaccurately low reading.
- C. The regular size cuff is appropriate for all clients.
- D. You should use a cuff of any size as long as it fits.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.' When obtaining blood pressure for an obese client, it is crucial to use a larger cuff to ensure an accurate reading. Choice B is incorrect because using a cuff that is too large for an obese client would actually result in an inaccurately low reading. Choice C is incorrect as a regular size cuff is not appropriate for obese clients due to their larger arm circumference. Choice D is incorrect because using a cuff of any size as long as it fits is not suitable for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings on an obese client.
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